Introduction To Hematology chapter 8

Introduction To Hematology

Q1= Hematology encompasses the study of -

A. Blood components

B. Coagulation

C. Platelets

D. All

Ans= D

Q2= What is called of production Development and maturation of cellular elements of Blood

A. Leukopoiesis

B. Hematopoiesis

C. Both

D. None

Ans= B

Q3= How many maximum number of lobes in a Neutrophil

A.4

B.5

C.7

D.8

Ans= C

Q4= Anticoagulant that use in blood culture is?

A) fluoride.

B) EDTA.

C) citrate. 

D) Sodium polyanthol sulphat(SPS)

Ans= D

Q5=Media for detection of hemolysis is. 

A) blood agar.

B) neutral agar.

C) macconky.

D) all above

Ans= A

Q6= Mycobacterium named acid fast because?

A) stain easily. 

B) once stained not decolorize by acid.

C) because of it is shape.

D) non of above.

Ans= B

Q7= What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?

A. Erythrocyte

B. Granulocyte

C. Lymphocyte

D. Thrombocyte'

Ans- A

Q8= What percentage of tissue located in the bone marrow cavities of adults is fat?

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

Ans- C

Q9= In an adult, what are the two best areas for obtaining active bone marrow by aspiration?

A. Vertebra, tibia

B. Sternum, vertebra

C. Anterior iliac crest, tibia

D. Posterior iliac crest, sternum

Ans- D

Q10= In the third month of gestation, what is the primary site of hematopoiesis?

A. Liver

B. Marrow of long bones

C. Spleen

D. Yolk sac

Ans- A

Q11= Programmed cell death is called

A. Necrosis

B. Apoptosis

C. Cellular senescence

D. Terminal differentiation

Ans- B

Q12=. In what area of the bone marrow does hematopoiesis take place?

A. Cords

B. Endosteum

C. Endothelium

D. Sinuses

Ans- A

Q13= The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are

A. Osteoblasts

B. Osteoclasts

C. Megakaryocytes

D. Plasma cells

Ans- C

Q14=What is the average life span of a normal red blood cell?

A. 1 day

B. 10 days

C. 60 days

D. 120 days

Ans- D

Q15= The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of

A. Ferritin

B. Myoglobin

C. Hemoglobin

D. Peroxidase

Ans- C

Q16= A senescent red blood cell is one that has

A. Been hemolyzed

B. Lived its life span

C. Become deformed

D. Lost its mitochondria

Ans- B

Q17= Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of

A. DNA

B. Iron

C. Reticulura

D. RNA

Ans- A

Q18= The major adult hemoglobin requires the synthesis of alpha-globin chains and

A. Beta-globin chains

B. Delta-globin chains

C. Epsilon-globin chains

D. Gamma-globin chains

Ans- A

Q19= The major storage form of iron is

A. Ferritin

B. Transferrin

C. Hemosiderin

D. Hemachromatin

Ans- A

Q20= Excessive extravascular red cell destruction is associated with

A. Hemoglobinemia

B. Bilirubinemia

C. Hemoglobinuria

D. Hemosiderinuria

Ans- B

Q21= Serum ferritin is a good indicator of the amount of

A. Cytochrome iron

B. Storage iron

C. Hemoglobin iron

D. Transferrin saturation

Ans- B

Q22= Which of the following is not characteristic of aplastic anemia?

A. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

B. Bone marrow hypoplasia

C. Absolute reticulocytopenia

D. Blood findings of pancytopenia

Ans- A

Q23= Which of the following is a true red blood cell aplasia?

A. Marrow replacement anemia

B. Fanconi anemia

C. Diamond-Blackfan anemia

D. Donath-Landsteiner anemia

Ans- C

Q24= An excessive accumulation of iron in body tissues is called

A. Hemochromatosis

B. Erythroblastosis

C. Megaloblastosis

D. Acrocyanosis

Ans- A

Q25= What is the most common cause of iron deficiency?

A. Bleeding

B. Gastrectomy

C. Inadequate diet

D. Intestinal malabsorption

Ans- A

Q26= Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for sickle cell anemia?

A. Hydroxyurea

B. Supportive therapy

C. Hyperbaric oxygen

D. Iron

Ans- B

Q27=Functionally, white blood cells are divided into

A. Granulocytes, nongranulocytes

B. Polymorphonuclears, mononuclears

C. Phagocytes, immunocytes

D. Granulocytes, lymphocytes

Ans- C

Q28= What is the largest white blood cell normally found in the peripheral blood?

A. Eosinophil

B. Neutrophil

C. Lymphocyte

D. Monocyte

Ans- D

Q29= Which of the following factors is not associated with variations in the total white blood cell count?

A. Age

B. Exercise

C. Emotional stress

D. Sex

Ans- D

Q30=In which of the following are eosinophils not increased?

A. Gushing syndrome

B. Allergic disorders

C. Skin disorders

D. Parasitic infection

Ans- A

Q31=Which of the following is not associated with neutrophilia?

A. Staphylococcal pneumonia

B. Cm shing inj ury

C. Infectious hepatitis

D. Neoplasms (tumors)

Ans- C

Q32= What is the key diagnostic test for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A. Bone marrow biopsy

B. Lymph node biopsy

C. Spinal tap

D. Skin biopsy

Ans- B

Q33= Perl's Prussian blue is a stain used to detect

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. Iron

D. Glycogen

Ans- C

Q34= Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure

A. Cell size

B. Cytoplasmic granularity

C. Cell number

D. Immunologic (antigenic) identification

Ans- B

Q35= A clotted EDTA tube can be used to perform a?

A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

B. Solubility test for hemoglobin S

C. Hematocrit

D. Platelet count

Ans- B

Q36= Which of the following tests could be performed on a hemolyzed blood sample?

A. Hemoglobin only

B. Hemoglobin and platelet count

C. RBC count and hematocrit

D. No results would be reportable.

Ans- A

Q37=The most likely cause of this hemolytic episode is

A. G6PD deficiency

B. Hereditary spherocytosis

C. Sickle cell disease

D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Ans- A

Q38= Lymphoid progenitor cells travel to which organ to become T lymphocytes?

a. Spleen.

b. Liver.

c. Thymus.

d. Kidney.

Ans- C

Q39= Which one of the following is a common side effect of oral iron supplementation?

a. Angina.

b. Peripheral neuropathy.

c. Constipation.

d. Brittle, spoon shaped nails (koilonychia).

Ans- C

Q40=Which one of the following is a feature of iron deficiency anemias?

a. Leukonychia.

b. Macrocytic, hypochromic red cells.

c. Raised serum ferritin.

d. Raised serum transferrin.

Ans- D

Q41= Bence-Jones protein is seen in which malignancy?

a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

c. Chronic myeloid leukaemia.

d. Myeloma.

Ans- D

Q42= Which one of the following is a vitamin-K-dependent clotting factor?

a. Fibrinogen

b. Prothrombin

c. Clotting factor V

d. Clotting factor VIII

Ans- B

Q43= Which of the following will prolong the prothrombin time?

a. von Willebrand’s disease.

b. Haemophilia A.

c. Haemophilia B.

d. Warfarin therapy.

Ans- D

Q44= Which one of the following is a phagocyte?

a. Macrophage.

b. Basophil.

c. B cell.

d. T cell.

Ans- A

Q45=  Which one of the following types of cell are the major constituents in pus?

a. Plasma cells.

b. Macrophages.

c. Mast cells.

d.  Neutrophils.

Ans- D

Q46= Which one cell type can induce apoptosis of virally modified or cancerous cells?

a. Neutrophils.

b. Mast cells.

c. Eosinophils.

d. Natural killer cells.

Ans- D

Q47= Which one of the following is an acute phase protein?

a. Tumors necrosis factor alpha.

b. C-reactive protein.

c. Interferon gamma.

d. Interleukin-1.

Ans- B

Q48= Which antibody is important in the antiparasitic response?

a. IgG.

b. IgD.

c. IgM.

d. IgE.

Ans- D

Q49=Which immunoglobulin is the main immunoglobulin in the secondary immune response?

a. IgG.

b. IgE.

c. IgD

d. IgA.

Ans- A

Q50=Which antibody is a pentamer?

a. IgM.

b. IgG.

c. IgA.

d. IgE.

Ans- A

Q51=Rheumatoid factor is normally which one of the following?

a. IgM anti-IgG antibodies.

b. IgA anti-IgM antibodies.

c. IgE anti-IgG antibodies.

d. IgD anti-IgE antibodies.,

Ans- A

Q52= Best blood product to be given in a patient of multiple clotting factor deficiency with active bleeding is:

(A) Fresh frozen plasma 

(B) Whole blood

(C) Packed RBCs 

(D) Cryoprecipitate

Ans= A

Q53= What type of RBC are seen in chronic renal failure?

(A) Microcytic 

(B) Macrocytic

(C) Normocytic 

(D) None of the above

ANS- C

Q54 = Best method to access hemoglobin

(a) gasometric method

(b) Acid-hematin method

(c) Copper-Sulphate method

(d) Cyn-Meth-Hb method

ANS- D

Q55=Increase in Serum homocysteine levels seen in

(a) Iron deficiency Anaemia

(b) Megaloblastic Anaemia

(c) Sideroblastic Anaemia

(d) Acute Tubulav Necrosis

ANS- B

Q56= Hemolysis in G-6-P-D deficiency is precipitated by all except

(a) Dapsone

(b) Septran

(c) Quinine

(d) Penicillin

ANS= D

Q57 = Megaloblastic Anaemia is due to deficiency of

(a) Iron

(b) Vit B 12

(c) Vit A

(d) Vit D

ANS= B

Q58= Purpura is the manifestation of

(a) Anemia

(b) Leucopenia

(c) Thrombocytopenia

(d) Leucocytosis

ANS=C

Q59= The diagnosis of CLL (Chronic lymphocytic leukemia) is confirmed by:

a. Peripheral smear

b. Bone marrow aspirate and smear

c. Immunophenotyping

d. Cytogenetics

Ans- C

Q60= Cytogenetic abnormalities seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia are all, except:

a. Trisomy 12

b. 14q+

c. del 13q14

d. 11p deletion

Ans= D

Q61=