CHEMISTRY OF CARBOHYDRATES
Q1. Carbohydrates are defined as the aldehydic or
ketonic derivatives of higher polyhydroxy alcohol or:
A. Nucleic acid derivatives
B. Steroid hormones
C. Anhydrides of such derivatives
D. Phospholipids
Correct Answer: C.
Anhydrides of such derivatives
Q2. Monosaccharides containing the aldehyde group as
the functional group are called:
A. Ketoses
B. Oligoses
C. Tetroses
D. Aldoses
Correct Answer: D. Aldoses
Q3. Monosaccharides containing the ketone group as the
functional group are called:
A. Aldoses
B. Hexoses
C. Ketoses
D. Pentoses
Correct Answer: C. Ketoses
Q4. A monosaccharide containing four carbon atoms is
classified as a:
A. Triose
B. Tetrose
C. Pentose
D. Hexose
Correct Answer: B. Tetrose
A. Fructose (or levulose)
B. Ribose
C. Glucose (or dextrose)
D. Erythrose
Correct Answer: C. Glucose
(or dextrose)
Q6. Fructose (or levulose) is an important component
of:
A. Starch and glycogen
B. Skeletal structures in plants
C. Fruit juices and honey
D. Outer structure of microorganisms
Correct Answer: C. Fruit
juices and honey
Q7. Which of the following is listed as an example of
a ketose?
A. Glucose
B. Glyceraldehyde
C. Fructose
D. Ribose
Correct Answer: C.
Fructose
Q8. Monosaccharides consist of a single polyhydroxy
aldehyde or ketone unit which cannot be broken down to simpler substances on:
A. Condensation
B. Polymerization
C. Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation
Correct Answer: C.
Hydrolysis
Q9. Oligosaccharides are defined as carbohydrates that
contain how many monosaccharide units per molecule joined by glycosidic
linkages?
A. One
B. More than ten
C. Between two and ten
D. Exactly four
Correct Answer: C. Between
two and ten
Q10. Disaccharides consist of how many monosaccharides
joined by a glycosidic linkage?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Ten
Correct Answer: B. Two
Q11. Maltose consists of two molecules of D-glucose
joined by what type of glycosidic link?
A. β-(1, 4)-glycosidic link
B. α(1)-β(2)-glycosidic linkage
C. α-(1, 4)-glycosidic link
D. α-(1, 6)-glycosidic linkage
Correct Answer: C. α-(1,
4)-glycosidic link
Q12. Lactose consists of galactose and glucose joined
by what type of glycosidic linkage, according to the sources?
A. α-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkage
B. α-(1, 6)-glycosidic linkage
C. β-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkage
D. α(1)-β(2)-glycosidic linkage
Correct Answer: A. α-(1,
4)-glycosidic linkage
Q13. Sucrose consists of glucose and fructose joined
by what specific glycosidic linkage?
A. 
-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkage
B. α(1)-β(2)-glycosidic linkage
C. α-(1, 6)-glycosidic linkage
D. 
-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkage
Correct Answer: B. α(1)-β(2)-glycosidic
linkage
Q14. The carbonyl group on C-1 of monosaccharides is
termed a reducing group because it can be oxidized readily by weak oxidizing
agents such as alkaline copper sulfate, which does not occur if C-1 is engaged
in bonding to another compound. Which common disaccharide is a non-reducing
sugar?
A. Maltose
B. Lactose
C. Sucrose
D. All disaccharides are non-reducing.
Correct Answer: C. Sucrose
Q15. Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharide
units joined by glycosidic linkages, and they contain a large number of sugar
components per:
A. Aldehyde group
B. Reducing group
C. Free carbonyl group
D. Ketonic group
Correct Answer: C. Free
carbonyl group
Q16. Polysaccharides that contain only one type of
monosaccharide as the repeating unit are called:
A. Heteropolysaccharides
B. Trisaccharides
C. Homopolysaccharides
D. Oligosaccharides
Correct Answer: C.
Homopolysaccharides
Q17. Starch is a mixture of Amylose and Amylopectin.
Amylose is a linear unbranched molecule in which D-glucose units are linked by:
A. α-(1, 6) linkages
B. β-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkages
C. α-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkages
D. β-(1, 6) linkages
Correct Answer: C. α-(1,
4)-glycosidic linkages
Q18. Amylopectin is a branched chain molecule in which
D-glucose units are branched by what linkage, in addition to the linear α-(1,
4) linkages?
A. β-(1, 4) glycosidic linkages
B. α(1)-β(2) glycosidic linkages
C. α-(1, 6) glycosidic linkages
D. β-(1, 6) linkages
Correct Answer: C. α-(1,
6) glycosidic linkages
Q19. Cellulose is a linear polymer of D-glucose units
joined together by:
A. α-(1, 6)-glycosidic linkages
B. α-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkages
C. β-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkages
D. β-(1, 6)-glycosidic linkages
Correct Answer: C. β-(1,
4)-glycosidic linkages
Q20. Glycogen, the carbohydrate reserve of the animal
body, is a highly branched chain molecule in which glucose units are
linked by:
A. Only linear α-(1, 4) linkages
B. Linear α-(1, 4) linkages and α-(1, 6) linkages at the
branch point
C. Only β-(1, 4)-glycosidic linkages
D. Only α-(1, 6) linkages
Correct Answer: B. Linear α-(1,
4) linkages and α-(1, 6) linkages at the branch point
Q21. Dextrins are the partial hydrolytic products of
starch produced by the actions of α-amylase, β-amylase and:
A. Alkalis
B. Enzymes only
C. Water
D. Acids
Correct Answer: D. Acids
Q22. Hyaluronic acid and heparin are examples of which
type of polysaccharide?
A. Homopolysaccharides
B. Disaccharides
C. Monosaccharides
D. Heteropolysaccharides
Correct Answer: D.
Heteropolysaccharides
Q23. Isomerism exhibited by organic compounds having
the same molecular formula and the same structural formula, but having at least
one asymmetric carbon atom, is called:
A. Structural isomerism
B. Cis-Trans isomerism
C. Optical isomerism
D. Anomerism
Correct Answer: C. Optical
isomerism
Q24. An asymmetric carbon atom is a carbon atom to
which how many different atoms or groups are attached?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six
Correct Answer: C. Four
Q25. When the OH group around the carbon atom adjacent
to the terminal primary carbon is on the right, the sugar is a member of which
series?
A. L series
B. D series
C. DL mixture
D. Pyranose series
Correct Answer: B. D
series
Q26. Glucose molecule contains how many asymmetric
carbon atoms?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: D. Four
Q27. Glucose has 2^{4}= 16 isomers, eight of which are
of D type and eight are of L type. Glucose is also a dextrorotatory (+)
compound, hence it is also called as:
A. Levulose
B. Fructose
C. Dextrose
D. Mannose
Correct Answer: C.
Dextrose
Q28. Fructose molecule contains how many asymmetric
carbon atoms?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six
Correct Answer: B. Three
Q29. All the monosaccharides and the two
disaccharides, maltose and lactose, reduce cupric ions present in:
A. Selivanoff's reagent
B. Orthotoluidine reagent
C. Benedict's reagent and Fehling's reagent
D. Iodine solution
Correct Answer: C.
Benedict's reagent and Fehling's reagent
Q30. In the qualitative Benedict's reaction for
reducing sugar, the production of green, yellow, orange, or red color is due to
the formation of:
A. Cupric hydroxide
B. Cuprous oxide (Cu_2O)
C. Copper sulfate
D. Sodium citrate complex
Correct Answer: B. Cuprous
oxide (Cu_2O)
Q31. In Benedict's qualitative reagent, which
component prevents the precipitation of cupric hydroxide or cupric carbonate by
forming a deep blue soluble complex?
A. Cupric sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Sodium citrate
D. Water
Correct Answer: C. Sodium
citrate
Q32. How does the reducing power of carbohydrates
change as the number of their sugar components increases?
A. It increases
B. It remains constant
C. It decreases
D. It disappears completely
Correct Answer: C. It
decreases
Q33. What characteristic compounds are formed by
reducing sugars when heated with a mixture of phenylhydrazine hydrochloride and
sodium acetate?
A. Glycosidic linkages
B. Osazone crystals
C. Hemiacetal structures
D. Furfuraldehyde derivatives
Correct Answer: B. Osazone
crystals
Q34. Which sugar forms sunflower type crystals in the
osazone test?
A. Glucose
B. Lactose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose
Correct Answer: D. Maltose
Q35. Which sugar forms cotton ball types of osazones,
allowing it to be differentiated from other reducing substances in urine?
A. Glucose
B. Mannose
C. Lactose
D. Sucrose
Correct Answer: C. Lactose
Q36. Selivanoff's test is used primarily to detect the
presence of:
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Galactose
Correct Answer: B.
Fructose
Q37. The principle of the Selivanoff's test is that
hydrochloric acid reacts with fructose at a faster rate to form a derivative of
furfuraldehyde which gives a red colored compound when linked with:
A. Phenylhydrazine
B. Resorcinol
C. Orthotoluidine
D. Alkaline copper sulfate
Correct Answer: B.
Resorcinol
Q38. Which compounds react with orthotoluidine in hot
acidic medium to form a green colored complex?
A. Fructose and sucrose
B. Maltose and lactose
C. Glucose and galactose
D. Starch and glycogen
Correct Answer: C. Glucose
and galactose
Q39. What color does Glycogen give when reacted with
iodine solution?
A. Blue
B. Purple
C. Red
D. Green
Correct Answer: C. Red
Q40. Which compound gives red, blue, or purple color
with dilute iodine solution, depending upon the type present?
A. Starch
B. Glycogen
C. Cellulose
D. Dextrin
Correct Answer: D. Dextrin
Q41. The cyclic structure of glucose is retained in
solution, but isomerism takes place about position 1. This is known as
mutarotation, resulting in the formation of:
A. Epimers
B. Structural isomers
C. α- and β-anomers of glucose
D. Furanoses
Correct Answer: C. α- and β-anomers
of glucose
Q42. Haworth proposed that all sugars forming
five-membered rings are called furanoses, named from their relation to:
A. Pyrone
B. Furan
C. Glucose
D. Maltose
Correct Answer: B. Furan
Q43. Isomers formed as a result of the interchange of
the -OH and H on carbon atoms 2, 3, and 4 of glucose are known as:
A. Anomers
B. Stereoisomers
C. Epimers
D. Structural isomers
Correct Answer: C. Epimers
Q44. About what percentage of the daily caloric intake
is supplied by carbohydrates in humans?
A. 10 to 20 percent
B. 30 to 40 percent
C. 50 to 60 percent
D. 70 to 80 percent
Correct Answer: C. 50 to
60 percent
Q45. The main sources of polysaccharides in the form
of starch are cereals, grains, vegetables, and:
A. Milk products
B. Tubers
C. Meat
D. Seafood
Correct Answer: B. Tubers
Q46. In the oral cavity, salivary amylase is capable
of hydrolyzing starch and glucose to:
A. Dextrins
B. Maltose
C. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. Fructose
Correct Answer: B. Maltose
Q47. Further digestion of carbohydrate takes place in
the duodenum by:
A. Salivary amylase
B. Gastric lipase
C. Pancreatic amylase
D. Intestinal sucrase
Correct Answer: C.
Pancreatic amylase
Q48. The intestinal juice contains various enzymes.
Which enzyme hydrolyzes α-(1-6) bonds in α-limit dextrins?
A. Maltase
B. Sucrase
C. B-galactosidase
D. Isomaltase
Correct Answer: D.
Isomaltase
Q49. The end products of carbohydrate digestion are
glucose, fructose, mannose, galactose, and:
A. Sucrose
B. Pentose sugars
C. Pyruvic acid
D. Lactic acid
Correct Answer: B. Pentose
sugars
Q50. The comparative rate of absorption of galactose,
taking glucose as 100, is:
A. 43
B. 100
C. 110
D. 39
Correct Answer: C. 110
Q51. Which monosaccharides are absorbed by active
transport?
A. Fructose and mannose
B. Mannose and pentoses
C. Glucose and galactose
D. Pentoses and xylose
Correct Answer: C. Glucose
and galactose
Q52. The active transport of glucose and galactose
requires sodium ions and a mobile carrier, and the free energy required is
obtained from the hydrolysis of ATP molecules, which expel what ion from the
cell?
A. Potassium (K^+)
B. Sodium (Na^+)
C. Calcium (Ca^{2+})
D. Chloride (Cl^-)
Correct Answer: B. Sodium
(Na^+)
Q53. A deficiency of disaccharidases (like lactase)
can cause abdominal discomfort, bloating, distension, and cramping because the
undigested disaccharides are fermented by enteric bacteria, producing hydrogen,
carbon dioxide, and:
A. Fatty acids
B. Ketone bodies
C. Organic acids (e.g., lactic acid)
D. Amino acids
Correct Answer: C. Organic
acids (e.g., lactic acid)
Q54. The process involving the oxidation of glucose or
glycogen to pyruvate and lactate by the Embden-Meyerhof pathway is called:
A. Glycogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
Correct Answer: C.
Glycolysis
Q55. The synthesis of glycogen from glucose is known
as:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenesis
Correct Answer: D.
Glycogenesis
Q56. The final common pathway of oxidation of glucose,
fatty acids, and amino acids through which acetyl-CoA is completely oxidized to
CO_2 and water is known as:
A. The Hexose Monophosphate Shunt (HMS)
B. Glycolysis
C. The citric acid cycle (Krebs's cycle)
D. Gluconeogenesis
Correct Answer: C. The
citric acid cycle (Krebs's cycle)
Q57. The alternative pathway to the Embden-Meyerhof
pathway and citric acid cycle for the oxidation of glucose to CO_2 and water is
the:
A. Cori cycle
B. Gluconeogenesis pathway
C. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt (HMS)
D. Glycogenesis pathway
Correct Answer: C. Hexose
Monophosphate Shunt (HMS)
Q58. The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates
such as glycerol, pyruvic acid, and lactic acid is termed:
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
Correct Answer: D.
Gluconeogenesis
Q59. If glucose is converted to lactate in a complete
anaerobic environment, the number of ATP molecules gained is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: B. 2
Q60. When ATP molecules undergo hydrolysis by the
action of Adenosine triphosphatase, each molecule of ATP gives about how many
calories of energy?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 7400
D. 3000
Correct Answer: C. 7400
Q61. The citric acid cycle takes place in which
cellular component?
A. Cytosol
B. Plasma membrane
C. Matrix of the mitochondria
D. Nucleus
Correct Answer: C. Matrix
of the mitochondria
Q62. Which cells do not operate the TCA cycle due to
lack of mitochondria?
A. Liver cells
B. Muscle cells
C. Red blood cells
D. Kidney cells
Correct Answer: C. Red
blood cells
Q63. The Hexose Monophosphate Shunt (HMS) operates in
the cytosol and is important for obtaining which molecules, needed for
lipogenesis?
A. ATP
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. NADPH
D. Fructose
Correct Answer: C. NADPH
Q64. In red blood cells, the HMS pathway provides
reduced NADPH for the reduction of oxidized glutathione, which then
removes what substance from erythrocytes?
A. Lactic acid
B. Hydrogen peroxide (H_2O_2)
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Methemoglobin
Correct Answer: B.
Hydrogen peroxide
Q65. The most important sites of glycogenesis
(glycogen synthesis) are:
A. Kidney and Brain
B. Red blood cells and pancreas
C. Liver and muscles
D. Adipose tissue and lungs
Correct Answer: C. Liver
and muscles
Q66. Liver glycogenolysis gives glucose, while muscle
glycogenolysis results in the formation of lactic acid due to the absence of:
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Pyruvate kinase
Correct Answer: C.
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Q67. Gluconeogenesis maintains a continuous supply of
glucose, which is a necessary source of energy, especially for the nervous
system and:
A. Adipose tissue
B. Erythrocytes
C. Liver
D. Muscles
Correct Answer: B.
Erythrocytes
Q68. Blood sugar is α-β-D glucose. The concentration
of blood glucose normally remains steady up to what concentration during the 24
hours?
A. 40 mg/dl
B. 70 mg/dl
C. 100 mg/dl
D. 140 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C. 100
mg/dl
Q69. Following food intake, blood glucose
concentration may rise temporarily up to:
A. 70 mg/dl
B. 100 mg/dl
C. 140 to 150 mg/dl
D. 200 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C. 140 to
150 mg/dl
Q70. Which organ plays a critical regulatory role in
blood glucose levels through uptake of glucose, conversion to glycogen, release
of glucose from glycogen, and conversion of pyruvate to glucose?
A. Kidney
B. Muscle
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
Correct Answer: C. Liver
Q71. Muscle glycogen does not contribute directly to
blood sugar because glycogenolysis in muscle produces lactate, which is
converted to glucose in the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Adipose tissue
Correct Answer: B. Liver
Q72. When the blood glucose level is below 150–170
mg/dl, the kidneys exert a regulatory effect by reabsorbing glucose by the
tubules completely. This level (150–170 mg/dl) is known as the:
A. Glucose threshold
B. Renal clearance limit
C. Renal threshold
D. Fasting glucose level
Correct Answer: C. Renal
threshold
Q73. Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone secreted by
which cells of the pancreas?
A. Alpha cells
B. Delta cells
C. Beta cells
D. Gamma cells
Correct Answer: C. Beta
cells
Q74. Which of the following is *not* a function of
insulin in controlling blood sugar?
A. Increasing the transport of glucose across the cell
membrane
B. Promoting glycolysis
C. Increasing glycogenolysis
D. Increasing glycogenesis
Correct Answer: C.
Increasing glycogenolysis
Q75. Insulin also promotes the conversion of acetyl
CoA to:
A. Pyruvate
B. Amino acids
C. Fatty acids
D. Ketone bodies
Correct Answer: C. Fatty
acids
Q76. Which hormone blocks the release of insulin?
A. Glucagon
B. Secretin
C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
D. Tolbutamide
Correct Answer: C.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Q77. Glucagon, produced by the alpha cells of the
pancreas, stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver by activating:
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphorylase
C. Glycogen synthetase
D. Epimerase
Correct Answer: B.
Phosphorylase
Q78. Epinephrine (secreted by the adrenal medulla)
stimulates glycogenolysis in:
A. Liver only
B. Muscle only
C. Both the liver and in muscle
D. Kidney only
Correct Answer: C. Both
the liver and in muscle
Q79. Which hormones, secreted by the adrenal cortex,
stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver, mainly from amino acids, and inhibit
the utilization of glucose in extrahepatic tissue?
A. Glucagon
B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroxine
D. Glucocorticoids
Correct Answer: D. Glucocorticoids
Diabetes Mellitus and
Diagnostic Criteria (Q80–Q96)
Q80. In diabetes, the lack of available and effective
insulin may be absolute (pancreas does not produce sufficient insulin) or
relative (pancreas produces a normal amount of insulin, but the body needs
more). This leads to a state of high blood glucose known as:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Ketoacidosis
D. Hyperosmolar coma
Correct Answer: B.
Hyperglycemia
Q81. In diabetes, decreased production of ATP, NADPH,
and glycerophosphate leads to a decrease in fatty acid and lipid synthesis, a
process known as:
A. Lipolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Glycolysis
Correct Answer: C.
Lipogenesis
Q82. Excessive catabolism of fatty acids in
uncontrolled diabetes gives rise to increased formation of acetyl CoA, which,
when shunted away from the citric acid cycle, leads to the synthesis of:
A. Glycerol
B. Ribose
C. Ketone bodies
D. Cholesterol
Correct Answer: C. Ketone
bodies
Q83. If ketosis, caused by the synthesis of ketone
bodies, is not treated, it may eventually lead to:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Diabetic coma
D. Renal glycosuria
Correct Answer: C.
Diabetic coma
Q84. Hyperglycemia in diabetes leads to polyuria
because the excess glucose in the urine increases:
A. Glycogen synthetase activity
B. Insulin secretion
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Water reabsorption
Correct Answer: C. Osmotic
pressure
Q85. One characteristic symptom of diabetes resulting
from increased thirst (Polydipsia), which in turn is a consequence of polyuria,
is:
A. Polyphagia
B. Blurred vision
C. Increased appetite
D. Increased thirst (Polydipsia)
Correct Answer: D.
Increased thirst (Polydipsia)
Q86. Type I diabetes, formerly known as Juvenile-onset
diabetes, is classified as:
A. Non-Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
B. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)
C. Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
D. Impaired Glucose Tolerance (IGT)
Correct Answer: C
Q87. Approximately what percentage of all diabetes
cases falls into the category of Non-Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
(NIDDM, Type II)?
A. 5-10%
B. About 90%
C. 50%
D. 20-30%
Correct Answer: B. About
90%
Q88. Which type of diabetes is commonly associated
with obesity, where weight loss usually improves the hyperglycemia?
A. IDDM (Type I)
B. NIDDM (Type II)
C. GDM
D. Secondary diabetes
Correct Answer: B. NIDDM
(Type II)
Q89. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is defined as
women having evidence of abnormal glucose metabolism during:
A. Puberty
B. Menopause
C. Pregnancy
D. Early childhood
Correct Answer: C.
Pregnancy
Q90. Most patients with Insulin Dependent Diabetes
(IDDM) have autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic:
A. Alpha cells
B. Delta cells
C. Beta cells
D. Acinar cells
Correct Answer: C. Beta
cells
Q91. Non-Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
patients usually exhibit both beta cell failure and:
A. Absolute insulin deficiency
B. Autoimmune destruction
C. Insulin resistance
D. Renal glycosuria
Correct Answer: C. Insulin
resistance
Q92. For nonpregnant adults, the criterion for
elevated fasting venous plasma glucose suggestive of diabetes, on more than one
occasion, is:
A. > 100 mg/dl
B. > 140 mg/dl
C. > 200 mg/dl
D. < 70 mg/dl
Correct Answer: B. >
140 mg/dl
Q93. For nonpregnant adults, the criterion for
elevated postprandial venous plasma glucose supporting a diabetes diagnosis is:
A. < 140 mg/dl
B. > 150 mg/dl
C. > 200 mg/dl
D. 110-140 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C. >
200 mg/dl
Q94. The WHO committee criterion (as proposed in 1979)
for impaired glucose tolerance is a 2-hour plasma glucose value between:
A. 70 and 110 mg/dl
B. 110 and 140 mg/dl
C. 140 and 200 mg/dl
D. 200 and 250 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C. 140 and
200 mg/dl
Q95. According to the ADA (new criteria), the lowered
threshold for the diagnosis of diabetes by means of fasting blood sugar in
nonpregnant adults is:
A. 110 mg/dl (6.1 mmol/L)
B. 126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/L)
C. 140 mg/dl (7.8 mmol/L)
D. 200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/L)
Correct Answer: B. 126
mg/dl (7.0 mmol/L)
Q96. The ADA recommends using fasting glucose as the
main diagnostic test for diabetes rather than oral glucose tolerance testing
because the fasting blood sugar averages a lower coefficient of variation
(6.4%) compared to the 2-hour value after glucose ingestion, which has a
coefficient of variation of:
A. 10.1%
B. 12.5%
C. 16.7%
D. 20.0%
Correct Answer: C. 16.7%
Hypoglycemia, GTT, and
HbA1c (Q97–Q114)
Q97. The commonest acute complication associated with
the treatment of diabetes is:
A. Ketoacidosis
B. Hyperosmolar coma
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Infections
Correct Answer: C.
Hypoglycemia
Q98. Severe central nervous system dysfunction may
occur when blood sugar levels drop below:
A. 70 mg/dl
B. 50 mg/dl
C. 30 mg/dl
D. 10 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C. 30
mg/dl
Q99. Hyperglycemia that follows a severe hypoglycemia
reaction is known as 'rebound' or:
A. Hyperosmolar effect
B. Somogyi effect
C. Glycation
D. Adrenal rebound
Correct Answer: B. Somogyi
effect
Q100. The normal fasting glucose concentration in
whole blood, determined by highly specific methods, ranges from:
A. 40 - 65 mg/dl
B. 65 - 95 mg/dl
C. 70 - 110 mg/dl
D. 110 - 140 mg/dl
Correct Answer: B. 65 - 95
mg/dl
Q101. To prevent glycolysis in a collected blood
sample, blood should be collected in bulbs containing:
A. Heparin
B. Sodium citrate
C. Fluoride
D. EDTA
Correct Answer: C.
Fluoride
Q102. The normal fasting range for glucose
determination performed on plasma or serum is:
A. 65 - 95 mg/dl
B. 70 - 110 mg/dl
C. 100 - 140 mg/dl
D. 150 - 170 mg/dl
Correct Answer: B. 70 -
110 mg/dl
Q103. In a patient with Reactive Hypoglycemia,
postprandial symptoms occur and are accompanied by a blood glucose level below:
A. 70 mg/dl
B. 60 mg/dl
C. 45 to 50 mg/dl
D. 30 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C. 45 to
50 mg/dl
Q104. What causes hypoglycemia in patients with
partial gastrectomy, occurring 1½ to 2 hours after a meal rich in sugar?
A. Impaired gluconeogenesis
B. Lack of glucagon
C. Excessive release of insulin
D. Depleted glycogen stores
Correct Answer: C.
Excessive release of insulin
Q105. Glucose tolerance means the ability of the body
to utilize glucose in:
A. The liver
B. The kidney
C. Blood circulation
D. Muscle tissue
Correct Answer: C. Blood
circulation
Q106. In a normal glucose tolerance curve, the blood
sugar level returns rapidly to the fasting normal limits, often reached at:
A. Half hour
B. One hour
C. Two hours
D. Three hours
Correct Answer: C. Two
hours
Q107. Which type of tolerance curve is characterized
by a temporary greater rise in blood glucose (often above the renal threshold)
due to a delay in the insulin mechanism coming into action, but returns to
normal limits in the usual time?
A. Normal response curve
B. Lag type of tolerance curve
C. Mild diabetic curve
D. Severe diabetic curve
Correct Answer: B. Lag
type of tolerance curve
Q108. Increased glucose tolerance (GTC No. 5) is
frequently obtained in cases of endocrine hypoactivity such as:
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hyperpituitarism
C. Hypoadrenalism (Addison’s disease)
D. Acromegaly
Correct Answer: C.
Hypoadrenalism (Addison’s disease)
Q109. In which condition may the renal threshold for
glucose be lowered (e.g., 130–150 mg/dl), resulting in temporary glycosuria
even when the tolerance curve is normal?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal glycosuria
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hepatic disease
Correct Answer: B. Renal
glycosuria
Q110. The formation of glycated hemoglobin (HbA1) is
an irreversible process, and the blood level reflects the integrated values for
glucose over the preceding:
A. 24 hours
B. 1 week
C. 6 to 8 weeks
D. 6 months
Correct Answer: C. 6 to 8
weeks
Q111. What is the normal range for Glycated
(Glycosylated) hemoglobin as tested by the Ion-exchanged method?
A. 1-2%
B. 4-7%
C. 7-10%
D. 10-14%
Correct Answer: B. 4-7%
Q112. The major fraction constituting approximately
80% of HbA1 is:
A. HbA2
B. HbF
C. HbA1c
D. HbA1b
Correct Answer: C. HbA1c
Q113. Increased urinary albumin excretion in patients
with total urinary protein excretion less than 150 mg/dl found in early stages
of diabetes mellitus is termed:
A. Nephropathy
B. Proteinuria
C. Microalbuminuria
D. End-stage renal disease
Correct Answer: C.
Microalbuminuria
Q114. The typical signs of diabetes mellitus include
Hyperglycemia, Polyuria, Thirst, Loss of weight, Ketosis, and:
A. Anemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Acidosis
D. Edema
Correct Answer: C.
Acidosis
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