🏥 NCL Paramedical Staff Nurse, Lab Technician & All Question Papers 2020 – Download & Preparation Guide

If you are preparing for the NCL Paramedical Exam 2026, then solving previous year question papers is one of the smartest strategies. In this post, you will get complete details about NCL 2020 Question Papers for Staff Nurse, Lab Technician, and other paramedical posts along with preparation tips.

📌 About NCL Paramedical Exam

Northern Coalfields Limited (NCL) conducts recruitment exams for various paramedical posts such as:

• Staff Nurse
• Lab Technician (Pathology)
• Radiographer
• Pharmacist
• Physiotherapist
• ECG technician
• Dietitians 

These exams are highly competitive, and practicing previous papers can significantly improve your chances.

📂 NCL Paramedical Question Papers 2020 – क्यों जरूरी हैं?

        Solving the 2020 question papers helps you:

            ✅ Understand exam pattern

            ✅ Know important topics

            ✅ Improve time management

            ✅ Practice real exam-level questions

            ✅ Boost confidence

Pay 9 Ruppes By Phone Pay 7089752341 and WhatsApp Me I send You PDF All Paramedical  category.

📥 Available Question Papers (2020)

1. 🩺 Staff Nurse Question Paper 2020

1. HIV Virus basically consist of-

A) Single stranded DNA

B) Double stranded DNA

C) Single Stranded RNA

D) Double Stranded RNA

Correct Answer: C

2. Which of the following is the infection caused in ‘Lower respiratory tract’?

A) Rhinitis

B) Pharyngitis

C) Bronchiolitis

D) Meningitis

Correct Answer: C

3. ‘TODAY’ is a –

A) Vaccine

B) Medicine

C) Contraceptive

D) A kind of antibody

Correct Answer: C

4. Ascorbic acid is a –

A) Protein

B) Vitamin

C) Enzyme

D) Fluid

Correct Answer: B

5. The drug of choice for treatment of ‘Filariasis’ is-

A) Tetracycline

B) Amphetamine

C) Dapsone

D) Diethyl carbamzine citrate

Correct Answer: D

6. Which of the following is the best diagnostic test for detecting Peptic Ulcer?

A) Barium meal Study

B) Ultrasonography (USG)

C) X-ray Study

D) Endoscopy

Correct Answer: D

7. Edward Syndrome is related with?

A) Trisomy of Chromosome No-18

B) Trisomy of chromosome No-13

C) Trisomy of chromosome No-21

D) Trisomy of chromosome No-24

Correct Answer: A

8. Which of the following is an example of Chemical disinfectant?

A) Burning

B) Boiling

C) Bleaching Powder

D) Autoclave

Correct Answer: C

9. Fluid choice for treatment of Hypovolemic shock in a Burnt Patient is?

A) Normal Saline

B) Ringer lactate

C) DNS

D) GNS

Correct Answer: B

10. Which of the following infection is transmitted through Blood Transfusion?

A) Viral Hepatitis C & Hepatitis B

B) Malaria

C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D

11. Uterine Inertia is-

A) Disorder of uterus

B) Disordered uterine contraction

C) Inward Movement of uterus

D) Absence of Uterus

Correct Answer: B

12. How much Noise may cause mechanical damage?

A) 150 decibel

B) 60 decibel

C) 120 decibel

D) 85 decibel

Correct Answer: A

13. Which of the following drug prescribed by Psychiatry and is regarded as Minor Tranquilizers?

A) Animatic

B) Antidepressants

C) Antianxiety

D) Antipsychotic

Correct Answer: C

14. Which of the following is not a component of National Rural health Mission?

A) Asha

B) Janani Suraksha Yojna

C) Under five clinic

D) RCH Program

Correct Answer: C

15. Formaldehyde and Ethylene oxide are example of?

A) Natural disinfectant

B) Solid disinfectants

C) Chemical gases disinfectants

D) Physical disinfectants

Correct Answer: C

16. Tocolytic drugs are such drugs which-

A) Increases GI Motility

B) Increases Uterine Motility

C) Reduces Uterine Motility

D) Reduces GI Motility

Correct Answer: C

17. Putting a Bitter substance on the nails of kids who used to bite it is an example of which of the following therapy?

A) Flooding

B) Aversion therapy

C) Hypnosis

D) Systematic desensitization

Correct Answer: B

18. Spirit should not be applied at the place where the vaccine has to be injected because—

A) it may cause harmful reaction

B) it may produce necreosis

C) It may damage live organism available in vaccine

D) It’s a practice without having any specific reason

Correct Answer: C

19. Which of the following Vitamin is most sensitive to the effect of Heat?

A) Vitamin-A

B) Vitamin -C

C) Vitamin-K

D) Vitamin-D

Correct Answer: B

20. Alarming value of GCS requiring ICU admission is

A) 15

B) 13

C) 12

D) 8

Correct Answer: D

21. Airway maneuver to open airway recommended in trauma patient is

A) Head tilt

B) Chin lift

C) Jaw thirst

D) B and C

Correct Answer: D

22. Which observation in the newborn of a diabetic mother would require immediate nursing intervention?

A) Crying

B) Wakefulness

C) Jittering movement

D) Yawning

Correct Answer: C

23. Patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. During examination, the nurse notes a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?

A) Document the finding.

B) Report the finding to the doctor.

C) Prepare the client for a C-section.

D) Continue primary care as prescribed.

Correct Answer: B

24. The patient is admitted for treatment of migraine headaches. The drug sumatriptan succinate is prescribed for the patient. Which of the following in the patient’s history should be reported to the doctor?

A) Diabetes

B) Angina

C) Cancer

D) Cluster headaches

Correct Answer: B

25. The head circumference of a normal infant is –

A) 22-28 cm

B) 28-33cm

C) 33-35 cm

D) 25-39cm

Correct Answer: C

26. What is the normal pulse rate per minute of an infant?

A) 72-88

B) 88-120

C) 120-160

D) 160-200

Correct Answer: C

27. A 25 year old male comes to emergency department in comatose condition. Breathing is labored. BP 82/44. Pupil is unequal. What will you do first?

A) Airway management

B) IV line

C) Send investigation

D) Inj. midazolam

Correct Answer: A

28. In the above patient, IV fluid of immediate choice will be:

A) RL

B) DNS

C) NS

D) Blood

Correct Answer: C

29. After some time above patient develop cardiac arrest. What is the best place to check pulse?

A) Radial artery

B) Popletial artery

C) Internal carotid artery

D) Anti cuboital artery

Correct Answer: C

30. At what rate chest will be compressed and what will be the rate of ventilation in same patient?

A) 5:1

B) 15:2

C) 30:1

D) 30:2

Correct Answer: D

31. A patient of road traffic accident present with BP 76/34 and pulse- 133. Only injury observed was fracture of long bone of right leg with profusely bleeding wound. What immediate action should be taken?

A) IV fluid and oxygen.

B) IV fluid and prophylactic antibiotic

C) Stop bleeding by using tourniquet in thigh.

D) Call surgeon

Correct Answer: C

32. A patient with depressed consciousness has lab report: blood sugar – 586mg/dl, urine ketone +++. Which IV fluid is preferable?

A) NS

B) DNS with insulin

C) RL with insulin

D) None of the above

Correct Answer: A

33. Malaria is caused by

A) Virus

B) Bacteria

C) Protozoa

D) None of the above

Correct Answer: C

34. Example of transmission of disease through blood are following except-

A) HIV

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis E

D) None of the above

Correct Answer: C

35. A patient was diagnosed as a case of pulmonary tuberculosis. He was started anti tuberculous therapy. He complains of red color urine. What to do?

A) Send urine for routine examination

B) Urine culture sensitivity

C) Surgical opinion

D) Counseling of patient

Correct Answer: D

36. A patient of hemorrhagic shock requires Blood transfusion. His blood group is B+ve. Which available blood can be used?

A) A+

B) AB-

C) AB+

D) O+

Correct Answer: D

37. The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust) is used for a patient who has:

A) A bloody nose

B) A blocked airway

C) Fallen out of bed

D) Impaired eyesight

Correct Answer: B

38. One teaspoon contains …………. ml

A) 2ml

B) 5ml

C) 10ml

D) 15ml

Correct Answer: B

39. For infection prevention what will you do?

A) Clean cloth to patient

B) Change bed sheet daily

C) Hand wash before and after patient care

D) Antibiotic

Correct Answer: C

40. What will you do for prevention of pressure sore in unconscious patient?

A) Frequent position change

B) Soft bed

C) Hard bed

D) Proper hydration

Correct Answer: A

41. Transmission of hepatitis A virus is by

A) Blood product

B) Infected food and water

C) Air born

D) None of above

Correct Answer: B

42. Transmission of tuberculosis is by

A) Blood product

B) Infected food and water

C) Air born

D) None of above

Correct Answer: C

43. Transmission of cancer is by

A) Blood product

B) Infected food and water

C) Air born

D) None of above

Correct Answer: D

44. Transmission of typhoid is by

A) Blood product

B) Infected food and water

C) Air born

D) None of above

Correct Answer: B

45. What is the most important step to abort the sickle cell crisis?

A) Hourly BP monitoring

B) Oxygen saturation monitoring

C) Hourly offering water to drink

D) Cooling by fan

Correct Answer: C

46. Patient has not passed urine in last 24 hour. It is termed as

A) Anuria

B) Polyuria

C) Oliguria

D) None

Correct Answer: A

47. There is 10-15 pus cells in R/E of urine. What it indicates?

A) Normal

B) Kidney disease

C) Urinary tract infection

D) None

Correct Answer: C

48. 40 years old lady has increased frequency of urine in night. What does it indicate?

A) Patient is diabetic

B) Patient has prostatitis

C) Patient has problem in liver

D) None

Correct Answer: A

49. Patient has chronic kidney disease. He has been advised continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Where it should be done?

A) Only in well equipped hospital

B) In any hospital

C) At home

D) All of the above

Correct Answer: D

50. Patient is on thyroxin. What is the cheap and best way to monitor drug dose?

A) T3 level

B) T4 level

C) TSH level

D) None

Correct Answer: D

51. Total no of vertebrae in sacrum is?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 5

D) 8

Correct Answer: C

52. Total no of vertebrae in thoracic reason is?

A) 12

B) 14

C) 5

D) 7

Correct Answer: A

53. Water soluble vitamins are vitamin-

A) A

B) D

C) B

D) K

Correct Answer: C

54. Cerebral malaria is caused by-

A) Plasmodium vivex

B) Plasmodium falciparum

C) Plasmodium malari

D) Plasmodium ovale

Correct Answer: B

55. In which disease, blood does not clots?

A) Thalassemia

B) Lung cancer

C) Hemophilia

D) Diabetes

Correct Answer: C

56. Filaria is transmitted by

A) Anopheles

B) Culex

C) Aedes

D) None

Correct Answer: B

57. Normal sodium level in blood is

A) 50-100 mEq/L

B) 100-120 mEq/L

C) 135-155 mEq/L

D) 160-200 mEq/L

Correct Answer: C

58. In ECG (V)1 electrode is placed in which intercostal space?

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) 4th

Correct Answer: D

59. Alcoholic patient presented to you in unconscious state. What will you give?

A) 10% D/W

B) 10% D/W with thiamine

C) 25% D/W

D) Mannitol

Correct Answer: B

60. A 60 years old patient comes to the hospital in emergency with acute gouty arthritis. An immediate nursing intervention would be to:

A) Relieve pain

B) Demonstrate crutch walking

C) Teach dietary modification

D) Promote diurasis by administering diuretics

Correct Answer: A

61. The nurse is teaching a group regarding prevention of foot ulcer. Which should she emphasize?

A) Wash and inspect all surfaces of the feet daily

B) Cut the toe nail by rounding edges

C) Treat small cuts promptly by disinfection with iodine

D) Use hot water bottles to warm feet in winter

Correct Answer: A

62. All are true about the signs of foetal deaths in early pregnancy except:

A) Signs of pregnancy subside

B) Uterus is small for dates

C) Brownish discharge per vagina

D) Foetal heart detection in ultrasonic scanner

Correct Answer: D

63. Cystic proliferation of Choronic epithelium is known as :

A) Hydatidiform mole

B) Oedematous Placenta

C) Ectopic Pregnancy

D) Polyhydramnios

Correct Answer: A

64. Vomiting persist throughout the day and woman's health becomes impaired is known as:

A) Morning sickness

B) Nausea vomiting

C) Hypermesisgravidarum

D) All of these

Correct Answer: C

65. Serious signs and symptoms of pre-eclampcia are:

A) Sharp rise in blood pressure

B) Increase proteinuria

C) Severe headache and visual disturbance

D) All of these

Correct Answer: D

66. Effect of Polyhydramnios in pregnancy is :

A) Prolapse of cord

B) Malpresentation

C) P.P.H.

D) All of these

Correct Answer: D

67. Which drug can be given in empty stomach?

A) Thyroxin

B) Pantoprazole

C) Both

D) None

Correct Answer: C

68. Sequence of basic life support is

A) ABC

B) CAB

C) CBA

D) ACB

Correct Answer: B

69. Best route of giving adrenaline during cardio pulmonary resuscitation in adult is;

A) Intra cardiac

B) Peripheral vein

C) Central vein

D) Intra osseous

Correct Answer: C

70. Fluid of choice in head injury patient is

A) RL

B) DNS

C) NS

D) 10% Dextrose

Correct Answer: C

71. As per the latest report by ISFR the total forest and tree cover area of India is how much of its geographical spread?

A) Less than 20%

B) Less than 25%

C) More than 25%

D) More than 35%

Correct Answer: B

72. Surya Kiran-XIV is a joint Military Exercise between ….

A) India & Bangladesh

B) India & Myanmaar

C) India & Nepal

D) India & Bhutan

Correct Answer: C

73. Who is presently the Chief of Army Staff of India?

A) Sri Bipin Rawat

B) Sri Manoj Mukund Naravane

C) Sri B L Joseph

D) Sri Nagendra Nath Singh Solanki

Correct Answer: B

74. Government is planning to establish India’s First Maritime Museum at which place?

A) Bhuj

B) Kalinga

C) Vizag

D) Lothal

Correct Answer: D

75. 16th November 2019 was celebrated as-

A) World Toilet Day

B) World AIDS Day

C) World Diabetes Day

D) COPD Day

Correct Answer: BONUS

76. Which of the following is the subject matter of 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill-

A) Abrogation of Article 370

B) 10% Quota reservation for economically weaker sections

C) The Tripple Talaq for Muslim Women

D) Protection of children from sexual offence

Correct Answer: B

77. Who among the following is one of the authors of the Book ‘Poor Economics’?

A) Mrinal pandey

B) Abhijeet Banerjee

C) Sudipt Bhattacharya

D) Amartya sen

Correct Answer: B

78. Which film is not an official entry from India for Oscars in International film category?

A) Mother India

B) Gully Boy

C) Kesari

D) Lagaan

Correct Answer: C

79. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of India is released by which of the following office?

A) Office of Registrar General of India

B) Office of CAG

C) Office of Union Health Minister

D) Office of Statistical computation of India

Correct Answer: A

80. What is ‘e- Dant Seva’-

A) Mobile application launched by AIIMS with Health Ministry

B) e-portal of Center for Cultural Resources

C) Initiative for quality health care for women/newborn

D) Mobile app for Janaushadhi Generic Medicine

Correct Answer: A

81. Which of the following is not a category for which Nobel Prize is awarded?

A) Chemistry

B) Physics

C) Mathematics

D) Medicine

Correct Answer: C

82. Which word was declared as Hindi word of the year 2019 by Oxford Dictionary?

A) नारी शक्ति

B) हिंदुस्तान

C) मुद्रा

D) पर्यावरण

Correct Answer: BONUS

83. The Company ‘Phoenix Medical Systems’ is related to which of the following?

A) Medical System for cheap breast cancer treatment

B) India’s first indigenously designed standing wheelchair

C) First Indigenous fuel cell system

D) Discovery of ‘Phazolicis’ antibiotic

Correct Answer: B

84. Which social media platform unveiled a ‘Preventive Health’ tool on 09/10/2019?

A) Facebook

B) LinkedIn

C) YouTube

D) Twitter

Correct Answer: A

85. How many CPSUs have got the status of Maharatna at present?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 5

D) 10

Correct Answer: D

86. Who among the following has been awarded with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019?

A) Ravindra Jadeja

B) Bajrang Punia

C) Deepa Malik

D) Pooja Dhanda

Correct Answer: B

87. Identify the error in the sentence ‘गत माह हम ताजमहल देखने जाएंगे’:

A) Gender related

B) Tense related

C) Number related

D) Pronoun related

Correct Answer: B

88. Antonym of इहलोक (Ih-lok) is-

A) Upkar

B) Patal

C) Aadi

D) Parlok

Correct Answer: D

89. Which state became the first to issue the highest number of golden cards under ABPMJAY?

A) Kerala

B) Madhya Pradesh

C) Jammu & Kashmir

D) Karnataka

Correct Answer: C

90. Project ‘Sangam’ of Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs is related to:

A) Swach Bharat Mission

B) PM-KISAN Scheme

C) Make In India Project

D) ABPMJAY

Correct Answer: A

91. India’s rank in Human Development Index - 2019 is------

A) 130th

B) 78th

C) 140th

D) 80th

Correct Answer: BONUS

92. Theme of International Conference in Yoga held in Mysuru (India) was?

A) Yoga for Heart Care

B) Yoga for All

C) Yoga for complete Health Care

D) None of the above

Correct Answer: A

93. Ajit scores 100 runs in 10th innings, increasing average by 8 runs. New average is:

A) 20

B) 21

C) 28

D) 32

Correct Answer: C

94. If Jan 1, 2006 was Sunday, what day was Jan 1, 2010?

A) Sunday

B) Saturday

C) Friday

D) Wednesday

Correct Answer: C

95. A man meets buses starting at 10-min intervals at 8-min intervals. His speed is?

A) 3km/h

B) 4km/h

C) 5km/h

D) 7km/h

Correct Answer: C

96. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate from 8 AM to 2 PM?

A) 144 degree

B) 150 degree

C) 168 degree

D) 180 degree

Correct Answer: D

97. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. B is C's:

A) Father

B) Brother

C) Uncle

D) Grandfather

Correct Answer: C

98. FIRE is coded as DGPC. What will be the last letter of the coded word for SHOT?

A) Q

B) R

C) S

D) P

Correct Answer: B

99. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54... what will be the 8th term?

A) 4370

B) 4374

C) 7443

D) 7434

Correct Answer: B

100. A man walks 1km East, 5km South, 2km East, then 9km North. Distance from start?

A) 3km

B) 4km

C) 5km

D) 7 km

Correct Answer: C

 

2. 🩺 Lab Technician (Pathology) Question Paper 2020

Q1: Which of the following are fat soluble vitamins? A) Vitamin A, D, E, C B) Vitamin A, D, E, K C) Vitamin A, B, C, D D) None of these Explanation: Vitamins are categorized by their solubility; A, D, E, and K are lipid-soluble, requiring dietary fats for absorption, while others like C and the B-complex are water-soluble.

Q2: Vitamin K is required for: A) Synthesis of prothrombin B) Changing prothrombin to thrombin C) Treatment of Scurvy D) Treatment of Rickets Explanation: Vitamin K acts as an essential cofactor for the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin (Factor II), which is critical for the blood coagulation cascade.

Q3: Vitamin B12 is also known as: A) Cyanocobalamin B) Methylcoblamin C) Cobalamin D) None of the above Explanation: While Cyanocobalamin is a common synthetic form, Cobalamin is the broader chemical nomenclature for the Vitamin B12 family.

Q5: Wilson disease occurs due to accumulation of: A) Copper B) Zinc C) Mercury D) None of the above Explanation: Wilson's disease is an autosomal recessive disorder leading to the toxic accumulation of Copper in the liver, brain, and other vital organs.

Q6: Iron is important component of: A) Haemoglobin B) Ferritin C) Transferrin D) TIBC Explanation: Iron serves as the central atom within the heme group of Haemoglobin, enabling the reversible binding and transport of oxygen.

Q7: Osteoporosis is related to following mineral: A) Calcium B) Phosphorus C) Magnesium D) Zinc Explanation: Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass and micro-architectural deterioration, primarily linked to chronic Calcium deficiency.

Q18: Rich source of calcium among following: A) Green leafy vegetables B) Milk C) Meat D) Carrot Explanation: While various foods contain trace minerals, Milk remains the gold standard for high bioavailability and concentration of Calcium.

Q36: Anaemia is commonly seen in: A) Diabetes B) Pregnant lady C) Sports Person D) Man Explanation: Anaemia is highly prevalent in pregnancy due to the physiological expansion of plasma volume and the increased Iron demands of the developing fetus.

Q37: The ability of substance to hold water molecule from surrounding environment and remain in same state is known as: A) Hygroscopic B) Effervescent C) Deliquescent D) None of these Explanation: A Hygroscopic substance attracts water from the air but, unlike deliquescent materials, does not necessarily dissolve into a liquid solution.

Q38: Anaemia is due to reduction in: A) RBC B) WBC C) Platelet D) All of above Explanation: Anaemia is clinically defined as a reduction in the total number of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) or a decrease in the concentration of Haemoglobin.

Anatomy and Physiology Fundamentals

Q4: Basic Functional Unit of Brain is known as: A) Nephron B) Neuron C) Myoglobin D) Histiocytes Explanation: The Neuron is the fundamental excitable cell of the nervous system, responsible for transmitting information via electrical and chemical signals.

Q8: Which is largest organ of body? A) Skin B) Bone C) Brain D) Stomach Explanation: The Skin (integumentary system) is the body's largest organ, serving as the primary protective barrier against environmental insults.

Q14: Which of the following is not related to heart attack? A) Elevated Blood Pressure B) High Cholesterol level C) Decrease HB D) Marasmus Explanation: While hypertension and lipid levels are cardiovascular risks, Marasmus is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition and is not a precursor to myocardial infarction.

Laboratory Instrumentation and Quality Control

Q9: Cell Counter is used for: A) HB estimation B) Differential count -WBC C) Platelet count D) All of the above Explanation: Automated Cell Counters employ impedance or optical flow cytometry to provide a complete profile, including HB, WBC differentials, and Platelets.

Q13: Substance that readily evaporate are called: A) Volatile substance B) Non-Volatile substance C) Hygroscopic substance D) None of these Explanation: Volatile substances possess a high vapor pressure at room temperature, allowing them to transition quickly into a gaseous state.

Q16: Vacutainer used for: A) Collection of samples B) Collection of blood sample for investigation C) Collection of samples for transportation D) None of these Explanation: A Vacutainer is a specialized tube containing a pre-defined vacuum and often an additive (like EDTA or Heparin) for standardized Blood Collection.

Q17: Substance whose aqueous solution conduct electricity are known as: A) Cation B) Anion C) Electrolyte D) Amorphous substance Explanation: An Electrolyte is a substance that dissociates into ions when dissolved in water, thereby facilitating the conduction of electricity.

Q20: Dilution Fraction Used for AEC in Neubauer chamber: A) 1:10 B) 1:20 C) 1:30 D) 1:40 Explanation: For the Absolute Eosinophil Count (AEC), a 1:20 dilution is the standard protocol for accurate cell visualization within the counting chamber.

Q21: “CASA” stands for: A) Computer Assisted Semen Analysis B) Computer Assistant Salt Analysis C) Computer Analysis of Synovial Assay D) None of the Above Explanation: CASA technology provides automated, objective assessment of sperm concentration and motility during Semen Analysis.

Q26: Internal Quality control evaluation carried by: A) Correct calibration and inspection B) Levey Jennings charts C) Running Control 3 times D) None of these Explanation: Levey Jennings charts are the primary graphical tool used to monitor laboratory precision and identify shifts or trends in assay performance.

Q27: Most of Biochemistry reagents require Temp. range for storage: A) 10 degree Celcius B) 2-8 degree Celcius C) 32 degree Celcius D) All of the above Explanation: Refrigeration at 2-8°C is mandatory for most Biochemistry Reagents to preserve enzyme activity and prevent chemical degradation.

Q29: Calcium used for estimation of: A) PT B) APTT C) Both D) None Explanation: Calcium (specifically calcium chloride) is a necessary reagent in the APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) test to initiate the clotting process in citrated plasma.

Q30: Histokinette machine used for: A) Preparation of Histopathology blocks B) Processing of gross specimen C) Quality Control D) None of these Explanation: The Histokinette is an automated tissue processor used to dehydrate, clear, and infiltrate tissue samples with paraffin wax.

Q31: Which is non conducting transparent solid? A) Glass B) Copper C) Zinc D) Gold Explanation: Glass is an amorphous solid that lacks free electrons for conduction and allows light to pass through, making it essential for laboratory optics.

Q34: CLIA stands for: A) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments B) Clinical Laboratory Items Act. C) Criteria for Lab Investigation and Analysis D) None of these Explanation: CLIA represents the regulatory standards applied to all clinical laboratory testing performed on humans in the United States.

Q35: ELISA is: A) a method of measurement of Ag-Ab Concentration B) Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay C) a method of target antigen/antibody in sample using specific Ag/Ab D) All of the above Explanation: ELISA is a multifaceted immunological technique that utilizes enzyme-labeled antibodies to quantify specific proteins or pathogens.

Q40: Depth of Improved Neubauer Chamber is: A) 1mm B) 2mm C) 3mm D) 4mm (Pathologist's Note: While standard Neubauer depth is 0.1mm, the validated answer key for this specific assessment set identifies 2mm as the correct option).

Q41: Fructose test in semen analysis done by: A) Rischochinol solution B) Hcl C) Formalin D) All of above Explanation: Seliwanoff's reagent (containing Resorcinol) is used to detect Fructose, an essential nutrient for sperm produced by the seminal vesicles.

Q42: Semen Analysis should be done within: A) 1 hrs. B) 30 mins. C) 2 hrs D) None of above Explanation: To ensure accurate assessment of motility and vitality, Semen Analysis should commence within one hour of ejaculation.

Q43: CSF sample should be taken in three bottles and bottle must be sent to lab in sequence as: A) I st - Biochemistry, II nd -Microbiology, III rd - Pathology, IV th - For special study B) I st - Special study, II nd -Pathology, III rd - Microbiology C) IV th - ICC, III rd -Pathology, II nd - Biochemistry, I st - Microbiology D) None of these Explanation: Sequential collection prevents cross-contamination and ensures the most sensitive tests (Biochemistry/Microbiology) receive the samples least likely to contain skin contaminants.

Q45: Internal diameter of wintrobe tube is: A) 1mm B) 2.5 mm C) 3mm D) 4mm Explanation: The Wintrobe tube is a standardized piece of glassware with a precise 2.5mm bore used for measuring ESR and PCV.

Q47: Cryostat used in: A) In Intraoperative diagnosis B) Frozen Section C) Both A&B D) None of the above Explanation: A Cryostat is a refrigerated microtome used for rapid Intraoperative Diagnosis by sectioning tissues that have been frozen rather than paraffin-embedded.

Q48: Needle most commonly used for collection of venous blood is: A) 19-21G B) 20-22G C) 23G D) 24G Explanation: The 20-22 Gauge needle provides the optimal balance between flow rate and patient comfort during routine Venipuncture.

Q50: Plasma: A) is Obtained by centrifugation of the anticoagulant added blood B) is Obtained by clotting of blood C) Contains no clotting factors D) None of the above Explanation: Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood that retains Clotting Factors, obtained by spinning down blood that has been treated with an Anticoagulant.

Q52: What is Cynmethemoglobin Method? A) Used for Hb estimation B) Used for ESR estimation C) Used for CBC D) All of the above Explanation: The Cyanmethemoglobin (Drabkin’s) method is the international reference standard for manual Haemoglobin quantification.

Q55: Which chemical used in cell counter for Hb estimation? A) Sodium Lauryl Sulphate (SLS) B) Diluent C) Detergent D) N/10HCL Explanation: SLS is a cyanide-free reagent used in modern automated analyzers to lyse cells and convert hemoglobin into a stable complex for measurement.

Q56: WBC pipette has: A) White bead B) Red bead C) Yellow bead D) All of the above Explanation: The White bead inside the bulb of the WBC Pipette allows for easy identification and assists in the mixing of the blood and diluent.

Q57: Dunger’s Fluid is used for: A) WBC count B) Eosinophils Count C) RBC count D) None of the above Explanation: Dunger’s Fluid is a specialized diluent containing eosin and acetone, specifically formulated for the manual Absolute Eosinophil Count.

Q58: How do you clean the sides of the pipette nozzle? A) By wiping the sides with wet cotton B) By shaking in air C) Keep in dry environment D) None of these Explanation: To prevent external residue from contaminating the sample, the nozzle should be carefully wiped with wet cotton before dispensing.

Q59: Other name of WBC pipette is: A) Thoma Pipette B) Pasture Pipette C) Wintrobe Pipette D) None of these Explanation: The Thoma Pipette is the classic glass instrument used for manual dilution and counting of blood cells.

Clinical Staining and Cytology

Q10: Which among following is Nuclear stain? A) Eosin B) Hematoxyllin C) Both D) None Explanation: Hematoxyllin is a basic dye that binds to acidic structures like the Nucleus (DNA), staining them blue or purple.

Q11: Stain used for calcium is: A) Von Kossa B) H & E C) Giemsa D) GMS Explanation: The Von Kossa stain is a silver reduction method used to visualize mineralized Calcium deposits in tissue sections.

Q12: Which is fungal stain: A) GMS B) PAS C) Both D) None Explanation: Both GMS (Grocott's Methenamine Silver) and PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff) are essential for identifying Fungal elements in histopathology.

Q22: Which of the following is not a branch of Pathology? A) Exfoliative Cytology B) IHC C) FISH D) None of these Explanation: Exfoliative Cytology, IHC (Immunohistochemistry), and FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization) are all legitimate specialized branches of modern Pathology.

Q23: FNAC stands for: A) Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology B) Fine Nife Attended Cytology C) Factor Number Activity Count D) None of the above Explanation: FNAC is a minimally invasive diagnostic procedure used to investigate lumps or masses by extracting cells with a thin needle.

Q28: PAP stain is not used for: A) Screening of Cervical Cancer B) Study morphology of Semen C) Study routine haematology slides D) Liquid based cytology Explanation: While PAP stain is the gold standard for cervical cancer screening and cytology, it is never used for routine Haematology (where Romanowsky stains like Giemsa are preferred).

Q32: 100% confirmatory test for Tuberculosis: A) Sputum Cytology B) Sputum Culture C) CBNAAT D) Blood Culture (Pathologist's Note: Clinically, CBNAAT is the rapid gold standard, but the validated answer key for this specific exam set identifies Blood Culture as the correct response).

Q33: Criteria for Sputum Smear Examination: A) At least one Cyst Macrophages in sputum B) Saliva should not present C) Squamous epithelium should be seen D) None of the above Explanation: The presence of Alveolar Macrophages (Cyst Macrophages) confirms that the sample originated from the lower respiratory tract, validating the sputum quality.

Q46: Special stain used for Acid Fast Bacilli (Tuberculosis) is: A) PAS B) Ziehl Neelsen stain C) Leishman Stain D) All of the above Explanation: The Ziehl Neelsen (AFB) stain utilizes carbol fuchsin and heat to penetrate the waxy cell walls of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Q60: Supravital Stain is used for: A) RBC count B) Reticulocyte Count C) WBC count D) None of these Explanation: Supravital stains (like New Methylene Blue) are applied to living cells to visualize ribosomal RNA in immature RBCs, known as Reticulocytes.

Q62: Perl’s stain (Prussian Blue stain) is used for: A) Assessment of WBC B) Assessment of Iron Store C) Assessment of Erythropoiesis D) None of the above Explanation: Perl’s Prussian Blue is the classic chemical reaction used to detect ferric Iron in bone marrow or tissue biopsies.

Hematology and Blood Banking

Q15: ESR stands for: A) Elevated Serum Routine B) Erythrocyte sedimentation Rate C) Early serum Rise D) None of these Explanation: ESR measures the rate at which RBCs settle in a vertical column of anticoagulated blood over one hour.

Q19: Which of the following is not a method of ESR estimation? A) Westergreen Method B) Automated Method C) Wintrobe Method D) Electrical Method Explanation: While Westergreen, Wintrobe, and automated systems are standard, there is no validated "Electrical Method" for measuring ESR.

Q24: EDTA is used for: A) CBC estimation B) Used in purple vacutainer C) HBA1c estimation D) All of the above Explanation: EDTA is the anticoagulant of choice for morphological studies (CBC) and molecular tests like HbA1c because it preserves cell structure.

Q25: Which of the following is not correct colour code? A) Yellow-Clot Activator B) Green- CBC C) Grey- Fluoride D) Red-Plain Explanation: Green tubes contain Heparin; CBC samples must be collected in Purple (EDTA) tubes.

Q39: How to prevent Platelet clumping? A) Taking sample directly B) Proper Mixing of blood with EDTA C) Process sample directly at 2-8 degree Celsius D) All of above Explanation: Platelet clumping is an in-vitro artifact that can be minimized by immediate and thorough inversion of the blood sample with EDTA.

Q44: Normoblast seen up to: A) 1Yrs of age B) 6 months of age C) 3months of age D) 2 months of age Explanation: Normoblasts (nucleated RBCs) may be observed in the peripheral blood of neonates but should generally disappear by 6 months of age.

Q49: Preferred Anticoagulant of choice for haemoglobin: A) Sodium Citrate B) EDTA C) Heparin D) All of the above Explanation: EDTA is the preferred agent because it does not alter the cell volume, ensuring accurate Haemoglobin and hematocrit measurement.

Q51: Tri Sodium Citrate 3.2% is used in which ratio for estimation of ESR? A) 1:4 (Citrate: Blood) B) 1:9 (Citrate: Blood) C) 1:3 (Citrate: Blood) D) None of the above Explanation: For the Westergreen ESR method, a precise 1:4 ratio of citrate to blood is required.

Q53: Polycythemia is diagnosed in case of: A) High Hb value B) Low Hb value C) Normal Hb value D) None of the above Explanation: Polycythemia refers to an abnormal increase in the total red cell mass, clinically recognized by a High Hb or hematocrit value.

Q54: Sahli’s Method is used for: A) ESR estimation B) Reticulocyte count C) Ca+ estimation D) Hb estimation Explanation: Sahli’s acid hematin method is a visual colorimetric technique for manual Haemoglobin (Hb) estimation.

Q61: Wintrobe tube can be used for: A) ESR B) ESR, PCV C) Both A&B D) None of these Explanation: The Wintrobe tube is versatile; it is used for measuring ESR when left upright and PCV (Hematocrit) after centrifugation.

Q63: Jamshidi triphine needle is used for: A) Bone Marrow Biopsy B) Bone Marrow Aspiration C) Both D) None of these Explanation: The Jamshidi needle is the standard instrument for obtaining both a liquid Aspiration and a core Biopsy of the bone marrow.

Q64: Hess’s Test is used for assessing: A) Bleeding Time(BT) B) Clotting Time(CT) C) Both of above D) None of these Explanation: Hess’s Test (Capillary Fragility Test) evaluates the integrity of the capillary walls and is related to Bleeding Time and platelet function.

Q65: Test used to monitor heparin therapy is: A) PT B) APTT C) Both D) None of these Explanation: While APTT is the primary test for Unfractionated Heparin, both PT and APTT may be used in comprehensive coagulation monitoring.

Q66: What are the Methods of blood grouping? A) Slide Method B) Tube Method C) Gel Card Method D) All of the above Explanation: Blood Grouping can be performed via manual Slide methods, more sensitive Tube methods, or automated Gel Card technology.

Q67: Purpose of cross matching/compatibility test is: A) to prevent transfusion reaction B) to prevent loss of blood C) to prevent blood clotting D) None of these Explanation: Cross matching ensures that the donor’s red cells are compatible with the recipient’s serum to prevent fatal transfusion reactions.

Q68: One unit of blood contain: A) 450 ml blood and 63 ml of anticoagulant B) 400 ml of blood and 60 ml of anticoagulant C) 350 ml of blood and 70 ml of anticoagulant D) 350 ml blood and 100 ml of anticoagulant Explanation: A standard adult collection unit typically consists of 450 ml of whole blood and 63 ml of CPDA-1 anticoagulant.

Q69: Bombay blood group is considered as: A) Blood group A B) Blood group O C) Blood group AB D) All of the above Explanation: Because the Bombay blood group lacks the H-antigen, it will appear as Group O in routine forward grouping tests.

Q70: Sodium Metabisulfite 2% is used for: A) G 6 PD deficiency B) Thalassemia C) Sickling test D) None of these Explanation: Sodium Metabisulfite is a reducing agent used in the manual Sickling Test to induce the formation of sickle cells in patients with HbS.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3. Section B: General Awareness and Aptitude

Current Affairs and Environmental Science

B-1: As per the latest report by ISFR the total forest and tree cover area of India is how much of its geographical spread? Answer: B) Less than 25% Explanation: The ISFR report indicates India's forest cover is approximately 24.56%, which is less than 25%.

B-2: Surya Kiran-XIV is a joint Military Exercise between: Answer: C) India & Nepal Explanation: Surya Kiran is a recurring bilateral exercise focused on counter-insurgency and disaster relief between these two nations.

B-3: Who is presently the Chief of Army Staff of India? Answer: B) Sri Manoj Mukund Naravane Explanation: At the time of this examination (Early 2020), General Naravane held the position of COAS.

B-4: Government is planning to establish India’s First Maritime Museum at which of the following place? Answer: D) Lothal Explanation: Lothal, an ancient Indus Valley civilization port in Gujarat, was selected for the National Maritime Heritage Complex.

B-5: 16th November 2019 was celebrated as: Answer: BONUS (Not Scored) (Note: World Diabetes Day falls on Nov 14th; this question was invalidated in the official key).

B-6: Which of the following is the subject matter of 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill: Answer: B) 10% Quota reservation to economically weaker sections (EWS) Explanation: This amendment introduced the 10% reservation for the EWS category in government jobs and education.

B-7: Who among the following is the one of the author for the Book ‘Poor Economics’? Answer: B) Abhijeet Banerjee Explanation: Nobel Laureates Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo co-authored this seminal work on developmental economics.

B-8: Which of the following film is not an official entry from India for Oscars in International film category? Answer: C) Kesari Explanation: While Mother India, Lagaan, and Gully Boy were official entries, Kesari was not submitted for the International Film category.

B-9: Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of India is released by which office? Answer: A) Office of Registrar General of India Explanation: The Registrar General provides the vital statistics through the Sample Registration System (SRS).

B-10: What is ‘e- Dant Seva’: Answer: A) A mobile application launched by AIIMS in collaboration with health ministry Explanation: This digital initiative serves as a comprehensive portal for oral health awareness.

Linguistic and Logical Reasoning

B-11: Which of the following is not a category for which Nobel Prize is awarded? Answer: C) Mathematics Explanation: Mathematics is famously excluded from the Nobel categories, with the Fields Medal often cited as its equivalent.

B-12: Which word has been declared as Hindi word of the year 2019 by Oxford Dictionary? Answer: BONUS (Not Scored) (Note: Although 'Samvidhaan' was the 2019 word, this item was marked as a bonus in the key).

B-13: The Company ‘Phoenix Medical Systems’ is related to which of the following? Answer: B) India’s first indigenously designed standing wheelchair Explanation: This company partnered with IIT-Madras to create the "Arise" standing wheelchair.

B-14: Which Social media platform unveiled a ‘Preventive Health’ tool on 09/10/2019? Answer: A) Face book Explanation: Facebook launched the tool to provide users with health resource reminders for screenings and vaccines.

B-15: How many CPSUs has got the status of Maharatna at present? Answer: D) 10 Explanation: At the time of the exam’s publication, the number of Maharatna status Central Public Sector Undertakings was 10.

B-16: Who among the following has been awarded with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019? Answer: B) Bajrang Punia Explanation: Wrestler Bajrang Punia (and Deepa Malik) received India's highest sporting honor in 2019.

B-17: ‘गत माह हम ताजमहल देखने जाएंगे’ इस वाक्य मे अशुद्धी है- Answer: B) काल संबंधी (Tense Error) Explanation: The sentence uses "Past Month" (गत माह) with a future verb "will go" (जाएंगे), creating a logical tense conflict.

B-18: इहलोक का विपरीत ताथार्क शब्द है- Answer: D) परलोक (Other-worldly) Explanation: इहलोक refers to "this world," while परलोक refers to the "afterlife" or "the other world."

B-19: Which state became the first to issue the highest number of golden cards under ABPMJAY by 26/09/2019? Answer: C) Jammu & Kashmir Explanation: J&K achieved significant implementation milestones in the Ayushman Bharat scheme within its first year.

B-20: Project ‘Sangam’ of Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs is related to which of the following? Answer: A) Swach Bharat Mission Explanation: Project Sangam uses technology to boost clean India initiatives through social and civic engagement.

B-21: India’s rank in Human Development Index - 2019 is: Answer: BONUS (Not Scored) (Note: India was ranked 129th in 2019; the options provided were deemed inaccurate in the key).

B-22: Which of the following was the theme of International Conference in Yoga held in Mysore? Answer: A) Yoga for Heart care Explanation: The conference emphasized the role of yoga in cardiovascular health and stress reduction.

Mathematics and Quantitative Aptitude

B-23: Ajit's new average runs after the 10th innings: Answer: C) 28 Logic: Adding 100 runs increased the average of 10 innings by 8 (total 80 runs used for increase), meaning the previous average was 20; adding the 8-run increase results in 28.

B-24: If Jan 1, 2006 was a Sunday, what was Jan 1, 2010? Answer: C) Friday Logic: Between 2006 and 2010, there are 5 odd days (including one leap year), and Sunday plus 5 days is Friday.

B-25: Speed of a man meeting buses every 8 minutes: Answer: C) 5km/h Logic: Since the man meets in 8 minutes what the bus covers in 10, the relative speed calculation 20 \times 10 = (20 + V) \times 8 yields a man's speed of 5km/h.

B-26: Degrees an hour hand rotates from 8:00 AM to 2:00 PM: Answer: D) 180 degree Logic: A clock hand moves 30 degrees per hour, so 6 hours of movement equals 180 degrees.

B-27: How is B related to C (A and B are brothers, A's son is D's brother, C and D are sisters)? Answer: C) Uncle Logic: Since B is the brother of A (the father), B is the paternal Uncle of children C and D.

B-28: If FIRE is coded as DGPC, what is the last letter of SHOT? Answer: B) R Logic: Each letter is shifted back by 2 positions (F-2=D, I-2=G), so T-2 is R.

B-29: The 8th term in the series 2, 6, 18, 54: Answer: B) 4374 Logic: This is a geometric progression with a common ratio of 3 (2 \times 3^7 = 4374).

B-30: Directional distance from starting point: Answer: C) 5km Logic: The net movement is 3km East and 4km North; the displacement is calculated using the Pythagorean theorem (\sqrt{3^2 + 4^2}) which is 5km.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4. Rapid-Recall Summary Table

Q. No.	Answer	Key Concept
1	B	Fat Soluble (A, D, E, K)
2	A	Vitamin K (Prothrombin)
3	C	B12 (Cobalamin)
4	B	Brain Unit (Neuron)
5	A	Wilson Disease (Copper)
6	A	Iron (Haemoglobin)
7	A	Osteoporosis (Calcium)
8	A	Largest Organ (Skin)
9	D	Cell Counter Usage
10	B	Nuclear Stain (Hematoxyllin)
11	A	Calcium Stain (Von Kossa)
12	C	Fungal Stain (GMS/PAS)
13	A	Volatile (Evaporation)
14	D	Marasmus (Malnutrition)
15	B	ESR (Erythrocyte Sed. Rate)
16	B	Vacutainer (Blood Collection)
17	C	Electrolyte (Conduction)
18	B	Calcium Source (Milk)
19	D	ESR Methods (Not Electrical)
20	B	AEC Dilution (1:20)
21	A	CASA (Semen Analysis)
22	D	Pathology Branches
23	A	FNAC (Cytology)
24	D	EDTA (CBC/HbA1c/Purple)
25	B	Code Green (Heparin/Not CBC)
26	B	Quality Control (L-J Charts)
27	B	Reagent Temp (2-8°C)
28	C	PAP Stain (Not for Heme)
29	B	APTT (Needs Calcium)
30	A	Histokinette (Blocks)
31	A	Glass (Non-conducting)
32	D	TB (Validated Key Answer)
33	A	Sputum (Cyst Macrophage)
34	A	CLIA (Federal Standards)
35	C	ELISA (Enzyme-Linked)
36	B	Pregnancy (Anaemia)
37	A	Hygroscopic (Holds Water)
38	A	Anaemia (RBC Reduction)
39	B	Platelet Clumping (Mix EDTA)
40	B	Neubauer Depth (2mm)
41	A	Fructose (Resorcinol)
42	A	Semen Analysis Time (1hr)
43	A	CSF Sequence
44	B	Normoblast (Infancy)
45	B	Wintrobe Diameter (2.5mm)
46	B	AFB Stain (Ziehl Neelsen)
47	C	Cryostat (Frozen Section)
48	B	Needle Gauge (20-22G)
49	B	EDTA (Preferred for Hb)
50	A	Plasma (Centrifuged/Anticog.)
51	A	ESR Ratio (1:4)
52	A	Cynmethemoglobin (Hb Est.)
53	A	Polycythemia (High Hb)
54	D	Sahli's (Hb Estimation)
55	A	SLS (Cell Counter Hb)
56	A	WBC Pipette (White Bead)
57	B	Dunger's (Eosinophils)
58	A	Clean Nozzle (Wet Cotton)
59	A	Thoma Pipette (WBC)
60	B	Reticulocyte (Supravital)
61	C	Wintrobe (ESR/PCV)
62	B	Perl's Stain (Iron)
63	C	Jamshidi (Biopsy/Asp.)
64	A	Hess’s Test (BT)
65	C	Heparin Monitor (APTT/PT)
66	D	Blood Group Methods
67	A	Cross-match (Prevent Rxn)
68	A	1 Unit Blood (450/63ml)
69	B	Bombay Group (Group O)
70	C	Sickling (Metabisulfite)
B-1	B	Forest Cover (<25%)
B-2	C	Surya Kiran (Nepal)
B-3	B	Army Chief (Naravane)
B-4	D	Museum (Lothal)
B-5	BONUS	Invalidated
B-6	B	124th Amend. (EWS)
B-7	B	Poor Economics (Banerjee)
B-8	C	Oscar Entry (Not Kesari)
B-9	A	MMR Data (Registrar Gen.)
B-10	A	e-Dant Seva (AIIMS)
B-11	C	Nobel Prize (No Math)
B-12	BONUS	Invalidated
B-13	B	Phoenix (Wheelchair)
B-14	A	Facebook (Prev. Health)
B-15	D	Maharatna Status (10)
B-16	B	Khel Ratna (Punia)
B-17	B	Tense Error (Grammar)
B-18	D	Antonym (Par-lok)
B-19	C	ABPMJAY Cards (J&K)
B-20	A	Sangam (Swach Bharat)
B-21	BONUS	Invalidated
B-22	A	Yoga (Heart Care)
B-23	C	Average Calculation (28)
B-24	C	Calendar Logic (Friday)
B-25	C	Speed Result (5km/h)
B-26	D	Clock Degree (180°)
B-27	C	Blood Relation (Uncle)
B-28	B	Coding Logic (T - 2 = R)
B-29	B	Series 8th Term (4374)
B-30	C	Distance Result (5km)

 

3. 🩺 Radiographer Question Paper 2020

1.  Which part of body is X-rayed in “Frog position”?

    A) Pelvis B) Hip joint C) Knee joint D) Elbow joint

    Correct Answer: B

 

2.  Which of the following will help in reducing radiation exposure to patients?

    1. High KV, low mAs 2. Collimation 3. Filtration

    A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer: D

 

3.  The unit of dose equivalent used to express radiation dose in living tissue:

    A) roentgen B) rem C) rad D) erg

    Correct Answer: B

 

4.  TLD badge should be worn at:

    A) Outside the lead apron stomach position B) Inside the lead apron stomach position C) The back side at the shoulder position D) Outside the lead apron collar position

    Correct Answer: B

 

5.  The common bile duct opens into the:

    A) Medial wall of the first part of duodenum B) Medial wall of the second part of duodenum C) Lateral wall of the second part of duodenum D) Medial wall of the third part of duodenum

    Correct Answer: B

 

6.  The stomach is located primarily within the:

    A) Right lower quadrant B) Right upper quadrant C) Left upper quadrant D) Left lower quadrant

    Correct Answer: C

 

7.  Normally a patient is asked to inhale deeply when having the lungs x-rayed. Which of the following is the BEST reason for that?

    A) More uniform density B) Increased contrast C) Greater magnification D) Greater area of lung structures shown

    Correct Answer: D

 

8.  Compression is used during excretory urography in order to accomplish which of the following?

    A) Aiding in the excretion process B) Immobilizing the patient C) Preventing the patient from breathing during exposure D) Retaining contrast medium in the collecting system

    Correct Answer: D

 

9.  Which of the following is a radiographic study of the urinary bladder that involves the direct injection of a contrast media through a catheter?

    A) Intravenous pyelogram B) Intravenous urogram C) Retrograde pyelogram D) Cystogram

    Correct Answer: D

 

10. The frequencies of Ultrasound used in medical imaging are in the range of:

    A) 1-20 Hz B) 1-20 MHz C) 10-20 MHz D) 10-20 KHz

    Correct Answer: B

 

11. What form of energy is used in MRI?

    A) Radio waves B) Sound waves C) X-rays D) Ultraviolet

    Correct Answer: A

 

12. The abdominal aorta bifurcates into Left and Right:

    A) Common iliac arteries B) Popliteal arteries C) Femoral arteries D) Tibial arteries

    Correct Answer: A

 

13. Which of the following radiological procedure outlines Spinal cord?

    A) KUB Radiography B) Thermography C) Myelography D) Xeroradiography

    Correct Answer: C

 

14. Unexposed X-ray film is comprised of transparent polyester base coated with an emulsion containing radiation sensitive particle known as:

    A) Silver bromide B) Silver iodide C) Both A and B D) Neither A or B

    Correct Answer: C

 

15. Swimmer’s view is used for taking X-Rays of:

    A) Lumbo-sacral spine B) Cervico-thoracic junction C) Humerus D) Coccyx

    Correct Answer: B

 

16. Waters’ view is used for taking X-Rays of:

    A) Base of skull B) Mastoid bones C) Orbits D) Paranasal sinuses

    Correct Answer: D

 

17. Apicogram is used for taking X-Rays of:

    A) Base of lung B) Apices of lung C) Mediastinum D) Diaphragm

    Correct Answer: B

 

18. Which procedure uses non-ionizing radiation?

    A) Nuclear medical imaging B) X-Ray C) CT D) MRI

    Correct Answer: D

 

19. To detect gas-fluid level in abdomen, following X–ray views of abdomen are taken:

    A) AP view B) Lateral decubitus view C) Erect view D) Both B and C

    Correct Answer: D

 

20. The most damaging type of radiation is:

    A) Beta rays B) X-rays C) Alpha rays D) Gamma rays

    Correct Answer: D

 

21. The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint:

    1. femur 2. tibia 3. patella

    A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: D

 

22. A patient is required to drink barium sulphate suspension to demonstrate which of the following structure(s)?

    1. pylorus 2. sigmoid 3. duodenum

    A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 3 only

    Correct Answer: B

 

23. The image intensifier’s input phosphor is generally composed of:

    A) cesium iodide B) zinc cadmium sulphide C) gadolinium oxysulphide D) calcium tungstate

    Correct Answer: A

 

24. Statements accurate regarding differences between male and female bony pelvis:

    1. female pelvic outlet is wider 2. pubic angle is 90 degrees or fewer in male 3. male pelvis is more shallow

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: B

 

25. In the Waters method with the central ray through an open mouth, which sinus is shown?

    A) Frontal B) Ethmoid C) Maxillary D) Sphenoid

    Correct Answer: D

 

26. In which position would a patient with orthopnea experience the least discomfort?

    A) Fowler B) Trendelenburg C) Recumbent D) Erect

    Correct Answer: C

 

27. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the:

    1. Brachiocephalic artery 2. Common carotid arteries 3. Vertebral arteries

    A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: C

 

28. Which of the following is demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

    1. Intervertebral joints 2. Apophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: B

 

29. Which condition is characterized by widening of the intercostal spaces?

    A) Emphysema B) Empyema C) Atelectasis D) Pneumonia

    Correct Answer: A

 

30. For AP view of coccyx the central ray is directed:

    A) 25 degree towards head B) 10 degree towards head C) 25 degree towards feet D) 10 degree towards feet

    Correct Answer: D

 

31. Typical examples of digital imaging include:

    1. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) 2. Computed Tomography (CT) 3. Pluridirectional Tomography

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: B

 

32. Which of the following groups of factors will produce the greatest radiographic density?

    A) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 44-inches SID B) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 36-inches SID C) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 48-inches SID D) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 40-inches SID

    Correct Answer: B

 

33. The energy of ionizing electromagnetic radiations is measured in:

    A) mA B) mAs C) keV D) kV

    Correct Answer: C

 

34. A wire mesh is used to test:

    A) Focal spot size B) For screen lag C) Film–screen contact D) Screen speed

    Correct Answer: C

 

35. Which of the following has an effect on distortion?

    1. Source–image distance 2. Angulation of the x-ray tube 3. Angulation of the part

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: D

 

36. The term used to describe image density in digital imaging is:

    A) Blackening B) Brightness C) Gray scale D) Resolution

    Correct Answer: C

 

37. Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-ratio grid could have:

    1. Taller lead strips 2. More distance between lead strips 3. Thicker lead strips

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: A

 

38. Which pathologic condition would require an increase in exposure factors?

    A) Pneumoperitoneum B) Obstructed bowel C) Renal colic D) Ascites

    Correct Answer: D

 

39. Grid ratio is the relationship between the height of the lead strip and the:

    A) Width of the lead strip B) Distance between lead strips C) Number of strips per inch D) Angle of the strip

    Correct Answer: A

 

40. Patient dose can be decreased by using:

    1. High ratio grids 2. High speed screen and film combination 3. Air-gap technique

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: A

 

41. In AP view of knee joint, the tube is angled 5 to 7 degrees to visualize joint space:

    A) Cranially B) Caudally C) Towards medial side D) Towards lateral side

    Correct Answer: A

 

42. MCU is:

    A) Micturating Cysto Ureterography B) Modified Cysto Urethrogram C) Micturating Cysto Urethrography D) Micturating Cysto Urinography

    Correct Answer: C

 

43. The term effective dose refers to:

    A) Whole-body dose B) Localized organ dose C) Genetic effects D) Somatic and genetic effects

    Correct Answer: A

 

44. Examples of primary radiation barriers include:

    1. X-ray room walls 2. Control booth 3. Lead aprons

    A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer: A

 

45. What is considered the normal creatinine range in patient blood?

    A) 0.6–1.5 mg/100 ml B) 4.5–6 mg/100 ml C) 8–25 mg/100 ml D) up to 50 mg/100 ml

    Correct Answer: A

 

46. In IVP, the first film taken after contrast injection is:

    A) Nephrogram B) Pyelogram C) Ureterogram D) Venogram

    Correct Answer: A

 

47. The number of cervical vertebrae is:

    A) 5 B) 12 C) 7 D) 8

    Correct Answer: C

 

48. When an X-ray beam falls on the body, they are:

    A) Reflected B) Absorbed C) Transmitted D) All of the above happens

    Correct Answer: D

 

49. The value of a CT number (in Hounsfield units) is determined primarily by:

    A) Matrix size B) Slice thickness C) KV D) Tissue density

    Correct Answer: D

 

50. Anode in a rotating anode X-ray tube is made of:

    A) Tungsten- Nickel alloy B) Tungsten-Rhenium alloy C) Nickel-Tin alloy D) Tungsten-Aluminum alloy

    Correct Answer: B

 

51. Which is not true about an intensifying screen?

    A) Reduces patient dose B) Decreases spatial resolution C) Reduces blurring D) Increases loading of X-ray tube

    Correct Answer: D

 

52. Ideal temperature of the dark room is:

    A) 10-15 degree C B) 23-27 degree C C) 16-22 degree C D) 28-32 degree C

    Correct Answer: D

 

53. The most commonly used photo sensitive agent is:

    A) Silver Chloride B) Silver Bromide C) Silver Iodide D) None of the above

    Correct Answer: B

 

54. Radiological examination of lungs and bronchial tree using opaque contrast is called:

    A) Bonchoscopy B) Bronchography C) Cystography D) Urography

    Correct Answer: B

 

55. To decrease heart magnification in chest PA view, film focal distance is kept at:

    A) 40 inches B) 60 inches C) 70 inches D) 36 inches

    Correct Answer: C

 

56. Radiological examination of salivary glands and its ducts is termed as:

    A) Ductography B) Sialography C) Sinography D) Fistulogram

    Correct Answer: B

 

57. Stenver projection view is basically done for:

    A) Base of skull B) Petrous portion of temporal bone C) Mandible D) Orbit

    Correct Answer: B

 

58. Which view of the nasal bone shows the bony nasal septum best?

    A) Lateral projection B) AP projection C) Water’s projection D) None

    Correct Answer: C

 

59. Skyline view is used for:

    A) Talus B) Scapula C) Patella D) Hip joint

    Correct Answer: C

 

60. What position of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process?

    A) AP view B) True lateral view C) Axial view D) Oblique view

    Correct Answer: B

 

61. During chest radiography, the patient’s chin should be elevated to:

    A) Avoid superimposition on lung apices B) Keep sagittal plane parallel C) Reduce motion D) Reduce dose

    Correct Answer: A

 

62. The 10 days rule for female patient X-ray examination is applicable to:

    A) first 10 days after menstruation stops B) first 10 days after menstruation starts C) 10 days before menstruation D) 14 days before

    Correct Answer: B

 

63. Most significant standard developer for radiation protection in India:

    A) AERB B) BARC C) NCRP D) ICRP

    Correct Answer: A

 

64. The radiation warning symbol is a black _______ on a yellow background:

    A) Tri foil B) Dual foil C) Quad foil D) Single foil

    Correct Answer: A

 

65. All are potential advantages of using higher KV except:

    A) Increased patient exposure B) Reduced tube heating C) Shorter exposure time D) Decreased area contrast

    Correct Answer: A

 

66. In an adult, the spinal cord usually ends at the level of which vertebra?

    A) S1 B) L1 C) L5 D) S3

    Correct Answer: B

 

67. Newton’s Inverse Square Law indicates how radiation intensity is affected by:

    A) Radioactive decay B) Distance from source C) Size of source D) None

    Correct Answer: B

 

68. Fixing solutions used in Radiography are:

    A) Alkaline B) Acidic C) Neutral D) None

    Correct Answer: B

 

69. One rad is equal to the absorption of:

    A) 1 joules/kg B) 0.01 Gy C) 100 joules/kg D) 0.1 Gy

    Correct Answer: B

 

70. Non-uniform intensity of the X-ray beam leaving the tube is called:

    A) Heel effect B) Thermionic emission C) Stray radiation D) Tube rating

    Correct Answer: A

 

---

 

### Section B: General Knowledge & Aptitude Questions

 

71. Total forest and tree cover area of India as per ISFR report:

    A) Less than 20% B) Less than 25% C) More than 25% D) More than 35%

    Correct Answer: B

 

72. Surya Kiran-XIV is a joint Military Exercise between India and:

    A) Bangladesh B) Myanmaar C) Nepal D) Bhutan

    Correct Answer: C

 

73. Chief of Army Staff of India (at the time of this exam):

    A) Bipin Rawat B) Manoj Mukund Naravane C) B L Joseph D) N. N. S. Solanki

    Correct Answer: B

 

74. Place planned for India’s First Maritime Museum:

    A) Bhuj B) Kalinga C) Vizag D) Lothal

    Correct Answer: D

 

75. What was celebrated on 16th November 2019?

    A) World Toilet Day B) World AIDS Day C) World Diabetes Day D) COPD Day

    Correct Answer: BONUS

 

76. Subject matter of the 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill:

    A) Article 370 B) 10% Quota for EWS C) Triple Talaq D) Child Protection

    Correct Answer: B

 

77. One of the authors of the book ‘Poor Economics’:

    A) Mrinal pandey B) Abhijeet Banerjee C) Sudipt Bhattacharya D) Amartya sen

    Correct Answer: B

 

78. Film that was NOT an official Indian entry for Oscars in International category:

    A) Mother India B) Gully Boy C) Kesari D) Lagaan

    Correct Answer: C

 

79. Office that releases India's Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR):

    A) Registrar General B) CAG C) Union Health Minister D) Statistical computation

    Correct Answer: A

 

80. What is ‘e- Dant Seva’?

    A) AIIMS mobile app B) Cultural resources portal C) Health initiative D) Janaushadhi app

    Correct Answer: A

 

81. Category for which Nobel Prize is NOT awarded:

    A) Chemistry B) Physics C) Mathematics D) Medicine

    Correct Answer: C

 

82. Oxford Dictionary Hindi word of the year 2019:

    A) नारी शक्ति B) हिन्दुस्तान C) मुद्रा D) पर्यावरण

    Correct Answer: BONUS

 

83. ‘Phoenix Medical Systems’ is related to:

    A) Breast cancer treatment B) Indigenous standing wheelchair C) Fuel cell system D) Antibiotic discovery

    Correct Answer: B

 

84. Social media platform that unveiled a ‘Preventive Health’ tool in 2019:

    A) Face book B) LinkedIn C) You tube D) Google

    Correct Answer: A

 

85. Number of CPSUs with Maharatna status at present (as of this exam):

    A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 10

    Correct Answer: D

 

86. Recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019:

    A) Ravindra Jadeja B) Bajrang Punia C) Deepa Malik D) Pooja Dhanda

    Correct Answer: B

 

87. Grammatical error in ‘गत माह हम ताजमहल देखने जाएंगे’:

    A) Gender B) Tense C) Number D) Pronoun

    Correct Answer: B

 

88. Antonym (opposite) of इहलोक:

    A) उपकार B) पाताल C) आदि D) परलोक

    Correct Answer: D

 

89. First state to issue the highest number of golden cards under ABPMJAY:

    A) Kerla B) Madhya Pradesh C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Karnataka

    Correct Answer: C

 

90. Project ‘Sangam’ of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs is related to:

    A) Swach Bharat B) PM-Kisan C) Make In India D) Ayushman Bharat

    Correct Answer: A

 

91. India’s rank in Human Development Index - 2019:

    A) 130th B) 78th C) 140th D) 80th

    Correct Answer: BONUS

 

92. Theme of International Conference in Yoga held in Mysore:

    A) Yoga for Heart care B) Yoga for all C) Yoga for complete health care D) None

    Correct Answer: A

 

93. Ajit's new average after scoring 100 runs in his 10th inning (9-inning average increases by 8):

    A) 20 B) 21 C) 28 D) 32

    Correct Answer: C

 

94. If Jan 1, 2006 was Sunday, what day was Jan 1, 2010?

    A) Sunday B) Saturday C) Friday D) Wednesday

    Correct Answer: C

 

95. Speed of a man meeting buses starting every 10 min at 20km/h every 8 min:

    A) 3km/h B) 4km/h C) 5km/h D) 7km/h

    Correct Answer: C

 

96. Degrees rotated by hour hand from 8:00 AM to 2:00 PM:

    A) 144 B) 150 C) 168 D) 180

    Correct Answer: D

 

97. If A and B are brothers, C and D sisters, and A’s son is D’s brother, B is C's:

    A) Father B) Brother C) Uncle D) Grandfather

    Correct Answer: C

 

98. If FIRE is DGPC, what is the last letter of the coded word for SHOT?

    A) Q B) R C) S D) P

    Correct Answer: B

 

99. The 8th term in the series 2, 6, 18, 54...:

    A) 4370 B) 4374 C) 7443 D) 7434

    Correct Answer: B

 

100. A man's distance from the start after walking 1km E, 5km S, 2km E, and 9km N:

     A) 3km B) 4km C) 5km D) 7km

     Correct Answer: C

4. 🩺 Physiotherapy Question Paper 2020

 

1.  How many numbers of bones in appendicle skeleton are?

    A) 116 B) 180 C) 126 D) 120

    Correct Answer: C

 

2.  Movement possible in condyloid joint are:

    A) Flexion & Extension

    B) Circumduction only

    C) Flexion, Extension, Abduction, Adduction

    D) Flexion, Extension, Abduction, Adduction & Circumduction

    Correct Answer: D

 

3.  Forward bending of trunk is an example of movement in the:

    A) Frontal plane B) Transverse plane C) Sagittal plane D) Longitudinal axis

    Correct Answer: C

 

4.  Upward forward movement at ankle joint is:

    A) Planter flexion B) Dorsiflexion C) Inversion D) Eversion

    Correct Answer: B

 

5.  Longest bone in human body is:

    A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Femur D) Humerus

    Correct Answer: C

 

6.  An athlete covering 100m in 10 sec., ran at speed of:

    A) 10m/s B) 100m/s C) 20m/s D) 1000m/s

    Correct Answer: A

 

7.  Technique of ossification of bone of right hand is used to determine:

    A) Height B) Age C) Weight D) Equilibrium Ability

    Correct Answer: B

 

8.  The function of Hamstring muscle:

    A) Extend Knee B) Flexes Knee C) Extend Elbow D) Flexes Elbow

    Correct Answer: B

 

9.  Lardosis is also called:

    A) Round Back B) Hollow Back C) Lateral Back D) Back Curve

    Correct Answer: B

 

10. Inversion of foot occur at:

    A) Talotibial Joint B) Talocalcaneal Joint C) Calcaneocuboid Joint D) Cuneonavicular Joint

    Correct Answer: B

 

11. Small muscle of hand is supplied by:

    A) C6 & C7 B) C7 & C8 C) C8 & T1 D) T1 & T2

    Correct Answer: C

 

12. Okazaki fragments are formed in:

    A) Transcription B) ds DNA replication C) ss DNA replication D) Translation

    Correct Answer: B

 

13. Commonest sarcoma in children is:

    A) Rhabdomyosarcoma B) Lipoma C) Angiosarcoma D) Fibrosarcoma

    Correct Answer: A

 

14. Therapeutic index is indicator of:

    A) Safety B) Efficacy C) Potency D) Toxicity

    Correct Answer: A

 

15. "Children who watch violent cartoons will become more aggressive..." This statement is most likely a(n):

    A) Theory B) Unstable Statement C) Hypothesis D) Pseudoscience

    Correct Answer: C

 

16. A sound hypothesis must be:

    A) Testable B) Agreed upon by experts C) Proven to be fact D) Very general

    Correct Answer: A

 

17. Property common in hypothesis & theories:

    A) Both provide fact as true B) Both integrate numerous findings C) Both are specific, testable predictions D) They are both falsifiable

    Correct Answer: D

 

18. Guyon’s canal located in:

    A) Hand B) Hip C) Ankle D) Knee

    Correct Answer: A

 

19. _______ Psychologist are generally interested in how behavior is influenced by other people.

    A) Social B) Gestalt C) Behavioral D) Humanistic

    Correct Answer: A

 

20. _______ suggests that behaviors and mental processes are result of roles they play in evolution.

    A) Behaviorism B) Cognitivism C) Functionalism D) Structuralism

    Correct Answer: C

 

21. Psychology has been considered a science since:

    A) Around 470 BCE B) The early 1600s C) The late 1800s D) The mid 1900s

    Correct Answer: C

 

22. Psychological science is:

    A) Both empirical and deterministic B) Empirical only C) Deterministic only D) Neither

    Correct Answer: A

 

23. The belief that behavior follows lawful, cause-and-effect relationship is known as:

    A) Free will B) Materialism C) Empiricism D) Determinism

    Correct Answer: D

 

24. Ultrasound can be used to treat:

    A) Osteomyelitis B) Soft tissue injuries C) Open fractures D) All of the above

    Correct Answer: B

 

25. Continuous passive motion apparatus is used to:

    A) Increase range of motion B) Maintain range of motion C) Strengthen knee muscles D) All

    Correct Answer: A

 

26. Interferential therapy is NOT used for:

    A) Muscle Stimulation B) Pain Relief C) Muscle Re-education D) Wound Healing

    Correct Answer: D

 

27. Poliomyelitis is caused by viral infection in:

    A) Posterior horn cell B) Anterior horn cell C) Muscle D) Peripheral Nerves

    Correct Answer: B

 

28. Wax bath is primarily used in the treatment of:

    A) PIVD B) O.A. Knee C) Osteomyelitis D) None

    Correct Answer: B

 

29. The vector for malaria in urban area is usually:

    A) A.stepheni B) A.culicifacies C) A.fluviatilis D) A.minimus

    Correct Answer: A

 

30. Bamboo spine is:

    A) Ankylosing Spondylitis B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Osteoarthritis D) Psoriatic arthritis

    Correct Answer: A

 

31. Cock up splint is used for:

    A) Medial nerve injury B) Radial nerve injury C) Ulnar nerve injury D) Aillary nerve injury

    Correct Answer: B

 

32. Most common muscle of upper limb involved in poliomyelitis is:

    A) Deltoid B) Pectoralis majos C) Trapeius D) Bicep

    Correct Answer: A

 

33. Second order lever is the lever of:

    A) Stability B) Instability C) Speed D) Efficiency

    Correct Answer: D

 

34. Which manipulation is used to obtain sensory stimulation?

    A) Stroking B) Effleurage C) Kneading D) Friction

    Correct Answer: A

 

35. To prevent the occurrence of Eddy current:

    A) An insulator is used B) A spherical conductor is used C) A laminated conductor is used D) None

    Correct Answer: C

 

36. Which is better electrotherapy modality for stress incontinence?

    A) TENS B) Faradic stimulation C) IFT D) IDC

    Correct Answer: C

 

37. EMG reveals action potential of:

    A) Muscle B) Motor unit C) Nerve fiber D) None

    Correct Answer: B

 

38. Cyriax principal of management for spinal problem is:

    A) Oscillatory rhythmic gliding B) Sled treatment C) DTFM and injection D) Traction and manipulation

    Correct Answer: D

 

39. The primary benefit of CPM after ligament reconstruction is:

    A) Oedema reduction B) Reduction of adhesion formation C) Pain management D) Prevention of atrophy

    Correct Answer: B

 

40. Most common cause of neuropathic joint:

    A) Syphilis B) Leprosy C) Rhuematoid arthritis D) Diabetes

    Correct Answer: D

 

41. Carrying angle is decreased in:

    A) Cubitus valgus B) Genu valgum C) Cubitus varus D) Genu varum

    Correct Answer: C

 

42. Pointing index is due to:

    A) Ulnar Nerve Injury B) Median Nerve Injury C) Radial Nerve Injury D) Injury To FDP Tendon

    Correct Answer: B

 

43. Vector is physical force that has:

    A) Magnitude B) Direction C) Magnitude and direction D) Fix point of application

    Correct Answer: C

 

44. Cardiac muscle ability to regenerate is:

    A) Partial B) None C) Full n complete D) Variable

    Correct Answer: B

 

45. Universal donor blood group is:

    A) Blood group A B) Blood group B C) Blood group O D) Blood group AB

    Correct Answer: C

 

46. What is the Life span of RBC?

    A) 60 days B) 120 days C) 12 days D) 12 weeks

    Correct Answer: B

 

47. Salbutamol pharmaceutical agent used as:

    A) Brochodilator B) Aanticonvulsant C) Antihypertesive D) Antiemetic

    Correct Answer: A

 

48. At neuromuscular junction the chemical released is:

    A) Acetylcholine B) Calcium C) Prostaglandin D) Adrenaline

    Correct Answer: A

 

49. Rheumatoid arthritis involves:

    A) Synovial fluid B) Synovial membrane C) Cartilage D) Subchondral bone

    Correct Answer: B

 

50. Tuberculosis of the spine is known as:

    A) Scheurmann's disease B) Perthe's disease C) Pott's disease D) Frieberg's disease

    Correct Answer: C

 

51. Osteomalacia is caused by the deficiency of:

    A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D

    Correct Answer: D

 

52. Good posture:

    A) Saves energy B) Aesthetics C) Prevents complications D) All the above

    Correct Answer: D

 

53. The unit of capacitance is:

    A) Ampere B) Volt C) Farad D) None

    Correct Answer: C

 

54. Spondylosis is characterized by:

    A) Stiff spine B) Hyper mobility C) Spinal instability D) Locking

    Correct Answer: A

 

55. Hypertension injury of knee may result in tearing of:

    A) PCL B) ACL C) Collateral ligament D) Meniscus

    Correct Answer: A

 

56. At birth the shape of chest is:

    A) Barrel Like B) Elliptical C) Circular D) Triangular

    Correct Answer: C

 

57. The appropriate current to know tendon rupture?

    A) Faradic current B) TENS C) Galvanic current D) None

    Correct Answer: D

 

58. ________ Splint is prescribed for a case of median nerve injury.

    A) Cock up B) Knuckle bender C) Pan Cake D) Short Opponens

    Correct Answer: D

 

59. Physiotherapy modality suitable for pelvic inflammatory disease is:

    A) US B) SWD C) IFT D) LASER

    Correct Answer: B

 

60. Infra red of 1000 nm wavelength can penetrate up to:

    A) Epidermis B) Dermis C) Muscle D) Bone

    Correct Answer: B

 

61. Minimum duration of exercise program to improve strength should be at least:

    A) 3 Weeks B) 10 Weeks C) 6 Weeks D) 12 Weeks

    Correct Answer: C

 

62. Which spinal orthosis controls LS flexion - extension?

    A) Taylor B) Knight C) Harris D) Taylor- Knight

    Correct Answer: B

 

63. Active stump exercises can be started after:

    A) Removal of drainage tube B) Stitch removal C) 3 weeks D) 6 weeks

    Correct Answer: A

 

64. Thomas heel is given in case of:

    A) Equines Foot B) Cavus Foot C) Flat Foot D) CTEV

    Correct Answer: C

 

65. Who is Father of physiotherapy?

    A) Per Henrik Ling B) Morgan C) Edward Zeinner D) Robort Hook

    Correct Answer: A

 

66. House maid's knee refers to:

    A) Infrapatellar Bursitis B) Prepatellar Bursitis C) Suprapatellar Bursitis D) Quadriceps Bursitis

    Correct Answer: B

 

67. Contraindication for manipulation is:

    A) Locked Joint B) Pain Free Stiff Joint C) Acute Nerve Root Compression D) None

    Correct Answer: C

 

68. Manual therapy can be applied to:

    A) Joints B) Muscles C) Neural Structures D) All Of The Above

    Correct Answer: D

 

69. Which pulmonary disease involves a change in secretion composition?

    A) Asthama B) Bronchiectasis C) Chronic Bronchitis D) Cystic Fibrosis

    Correct Answer: D

 

70. Treatment of CTEV should start at the age of:

    A) 2 Weeks B) 1 month C) Soon After Birth D) 9 months

    Correct Answer: C

 

---

 

### Section B: General Knowledge, Aptitude, and Language

 

71. What is the total forest and tree cover area of India geographically?

    A) Less than 20% B) Less than 25% C) More than 25% D) More than 35%

    Correct Answer: B

 

72. Surya Kiran-XIV is a joint Military Exercise between India and:

    A) Bangladesh B) Myanmaar C) Nepal D) Bhutan

    Correct Answer: C

 

73. Who is presently the Chief of Army Staff of India?

    A) Sri Bipin Rawat B) Sri Manoj Mukund Naravane C) Sri B L Joseph D) Sri Nagendra Nath Singh Solanki

    Correct Answer: B

 

74. India’s First Maritime Museum is planned to be established at:

    A) Bhuj B) Kalinga C) Vizag D) Lothal

    Correct Answer: D

 

75. 16th November 2019 was celebrated as:

    A) World Toilet Day B) World AIDS Day C) World Diabetes Day D) COPD Day

    Correct Answer: BONUS

 

76. Subject matter of the 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill:

    A) Article 370 B) 10% Quota for EWS forward caste C) Triple Talaq D) Protection from sexual offense

    Correct Answer: B

 

77. Who is an author of the book ‘Poor Economics’?

    A) Mrinal pandey B) Abhijeet Banerjee C) Sudipt Bhattacharya D) Amartya sen

    Correct Answer: B

 

78. Which film was NOT an official entry from India for Oscars?

    A) Mother India B) Gully Boy C) Kesari D) Lagaan

    Correct Answer: C

 

79. Which office releases the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of India?

    A) Registrar General B) CAG C) Union Health Minister D) Statistical computation

    Correct Answer: A

 

80. What is ‘e- Dant Seva’?

    A) Mobile app by AIIMS & Health Ministry B) Cultural e-portal C) Initiative for new borns D) Generic medicine app

    Correct Answer: A

 

81. Which of the following is NOT a category for the Nobel Prize?

    A) Chemistry B) Physics C) Mathematics D) Medicine

    Correct Answer: C

 

82. Oxford Dictionary Hindi word of the year 2019:

    A) नारी शण्डि B) धहंाुस्तान C) मुद्रा D) पयाावर

    Correct Answer: BONUS

 

83. ‘Phoenix Medical Systems’ is related to:

    A) Cancer treatment B) Standing wheelchair C) Fuel cell system D) Antibiotic discovery

    Correct Answer: B

 

84. Which social media platform unveiled a ‘Preventive Health’ tool in 2019?

    A) Facebook B) LinkedIn C) YouTube D) Google

    Correct Answer: A

 

85. How many CPSUs have Maharatna status at present?

    A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 10

    Correct Answer: D

 

86. Awarded with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019:

    A) Ravindra Jadeja B) Bajrang Punia C) Deepa Malik D) Pooja Dhanda

    Correct Answer: B

 

87. ‘गत माह हम ताजमहल ाेखने जाएंगे’—Identify the error:

    A) Gender B) Tense C) Number D) Pronoun

    Correct Answer: B

 

88. Antonym of ‘इहल क’ (Ihlok):

    A) उपकार B) पाताल C) आधा D) परल क

    Correct Answer: D

 

89. First state to issue highest golden cards under ‘ABPMJAY’:

    A) Kerla B) Madhya Pradesh C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Karnataka

    Correct Answer: C

 

90. Project ‘Sangam’ of Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs relates to:

    A) Swach Bharat Mission B) PM-Kisan C) Make In India D) ABPMJAY

    Correct Answer: A

 

91. India’s rank in Human Development Index - 2019:

    A) 130th B) 78th C) 140th D) 80th

    Correct Answer: BONUS

 

92. Theme of International Yoga Conference in Mysore:

    A) Yoga for Heart care B) Yoga for all C) Complete health care D) None

    Correct Answer: A

 

93. Ajit scores 100 in 10th inning, increasing average by 8. New average?

    A) 20 B) 21 C) 28 D) 32

    Correct Answer: C

 

94. If Jan 1, 2006 was Sunday, what was Jan 1, 2010?

    A) Sunday B) Saturday C) Friday D) Wednesday

    Correct Answer: C

 

95. Buses start at 10 min interval at 20km/h. Speed of man meeting them at 8 min interval?

    A) 3km/h B) 4km/h C) 5km/h D) 7km/h

    Correct Answer: C

 

96. Degrees an hour hand rotates from 8 AM to 2 PM:

    A) 144 B) 150 C) 168 D) 180

    Correct Answer: D

 

97. A/B brothers, C/D sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. B to C?

    A) Father B) Brother C) Uncle D) Grandfather

    Correct Answer: C

 

98. If FIRE is coded DGPC, last letter of SHOT is:

    A) Q B) R C) S D) P

    Correct Answer: B

 

99. What is the 8th term in the series 2, 6, 18, 54...?

    A) 4370 B) 4374 C) 7443 D) 7434

    Correct Answer: B

 

100. Man walks 1km E, 5km S, 2km E, 9km N. Distance from start?

    A) 3km B) 4km C) 5km D) 7km

    Correct Answer: C